M
mikeledes
Guest
OSAS and election…focusing on God’s foreknowledge
Again - this scripture is for those who oppose this notion of election…
19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will?
20 Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus?
21 Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?
22 What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction:
23 And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory,
24 Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also
Other explanations are a gross twisting of this passage and the myriad of other passages that support this.
Just to add a further qualification…why the phrase saying - IS THERE UNRUIGHTEOUSNESS WITH GOD?? Certainly fallen man would not have a problem with your doctrine - that God forsees the human making the free will choice. But, Paul must add this question because he is writing under the influence of the Holy Spirit who knows fallen man has a problem with this teaching!
Foreknowledge means to forelove…the Bible says that Jesus was crucufied by the foreknowledge of God the Father. Does that simply mean that God saw that it was going to happen and then PLANNED IT THAT WAY. Certainly not! It was forethought and planned in accordance with His call and His plan…NOT OURS!! Hence…
Ro 8:28 And we know that all things work together for good to them that love God, to them who are the called according to his purpose.
2Ti 1:9 Who hath saved us, and called us with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began,
Ro 9:11 (For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth![]()
Eph 1:11 In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will:
And yet God desires the salvation of all.I hope you can see this
1 Timothy 2:4
**4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. **
Ezekiel 18:23
23"Do I have any pleasure in the death of the wicked," declares the Lord GOD, "rather than that he should turn from his ways and live?
If no one can repent without God’s initative, then how can he desire the repentance of the wicked without offering them the means to repent? If He created the reprobrate specifically for eternal damnation, then how can He say he desires their salvation and that they repent?
Titus 2:11
11For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to all men,
If God desires the salvation of all, then only if a person’s choice is factored in can we understand why some are not saved without making God directly responsible for sin and evil.
Luke 13:34
**34"O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, the city that kills the prophets and stones those sent to her! How often I wanted to gather your children together, just as a hen gathers her brood under her wings, and you would not have it! **
There are those whom God has ordained that they will die in a state of grace (the elect) and there are those whom God has ordained that they will not (the reprobate). In both cases, God incorporates man’s free will. This does not necessarily mean that election is based on man’s choice, but that God’s election incoprates man’s choice.
God Bless,
Michael