S
Servant19
Guest
Humbly Vico, one cannot say that the problem of transcendence and immanence is resolved by simply saying that “God is immanent and transcendent at the same time, and we call this the hypostatic union”The Catholic Church dealt with immanence extensively in early councils, and resolved it. This is some history from the International Theological Comission (1979):
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- … At the Council of Nicaea in a.d. 325, the Church defined that the Son is consubstantial (homoousios) with the Father. In so doing, the Church both repudiated the Arian compromise with Hellenism and deeply altered the shape of Greek, especially Platonist and neo-Platonist, metaphysics. In a manner of speaking, it demythicized Hellenism and effected a Christian purification of it. In the act of dismissing the notion of an intermediate being, the Church recognized only two modes of being: uncreated (nonmade) and created.
5. During the controversies between the schools of Antioch and Alexandria, it was difficult to perceive how transcendence, that is, the distinction between the two natures, could be reconciled with immanence, that is, the hypostatic union. In a.d. 451 the Council of Chalcedon (DS 301-2) undertook to show how the two viewpoints could be reconciled by having recourse to two expressions at the same time: “without confusion” (asygchytos) and “without division” (adiairetos). We can see there the apophatic equivalent of the formula that affirms “the two natures and the one hypostasis” of Christ. “Without confusion” obviously refers to the two natures and asserts that the humanity of Jesus is an authentic one. In keeping with the wishes of the anti-Arians, this formula bears witness at the same time to God’s transcendence, for God is said to remain God, while man remains man. It excludes any intermediate state between divinity and humanity. “Without division” proclaims the very deep and irreversible union of God and man in the person of the world. God’s full immanence in the world is asserted as well. It is on this immanence that Christian salvation and man’s divinization are grounded.
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6. … the definition of Chalcedon radically transcends Greek thought, for it lets coexist two viewpoints that Greek philosophy had always regarded as irreconcilable: divine transcendence, the very soul of the Platonic system, and divine immanence, which is the spirit of the Stoic theory.
vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/cfaith/cti_documents/rc_cti_1979_cristologia_en.html
The equivalent is to say that I am a human and a horse at the same time and we call this “trans- species union”
…we are either genetically human or horse. We don’t fit square pegs into round holes…
So when these Councils get together and they all sit down and say “we undertook to show how the two viewpoints could be reconciled”, where does Tradition fit into all this?
Is this the “actual” teaching of Jesus spoken of with His own mouth to the Apostles and passed down through Oral Tradition or was this a matter that was discussed and extrapolated through the application of known theologies?
Please be honest can you trully say that it makes sense to your sincerity and reason that God can be transcendent and immanent in essence all at the same time, without it being pantheism?
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