'Pedophilia Is a Sexual Orientation'?

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interestedman said:
Funny that pretty much everyone that uses birth control would disagree that they are left with “zero dignity.”
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He is talking objectively not subjectively about how people feel. Morality is not determined based on how people feel. One example of this would be in ancient Greece where pedophilia was common place and actually a part of society. I’m sure in most cases neither the child not the man “felt” their dignities were being ignored, but how they felt has no bearing on whether those actions were ok or not. There is more to morality than acts being consensual lol. If that is all you believe morality is based in then I’m sure you also believe assisting people in committing suicide is not wrong.
 
I think it’s a false association. The acceptance of pedophilia is not correlative with the acceptance of homosexuality. In certain Islamic countries pre-pubescent girls can be married off to much older men, and in those same countries homosexuality is punishable by flogging or worse. In the amish polygamous societies, older men having sex with young girls is not uncommon and this feature is in no way attributable to permissiveness or licentiousness. These are strict cultures. Our modern liberal culture does not have a worse sexual ethic than some highly religious societies.
 
User124 said:
Your lack of understanding about AIDS is a real problem here.
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User,

You are correct…a proper understanding of AIDS is needed as seen here…
The gay population and the transgendered population represent a depository of AIDS with high risk.

cdc.gov/hiv/topics/msm/index.htm
Gay, bisexual, and other men who have sex with men (MSM)1 represent approximately 2% of the US population, yet are the population most severely affected by HIV. In 2009, MSM accounted for 61% of all new HIV infections, and MSM with a history of injection drug use (MSM-IDU) accounted for an additional 3% of new infections. That same year, young MSM accounted for 69% of new HIV infections among persons aged 13–29 and 44% of infections among all MSM. At the end of 2009, an estimated 441,669 (56%) persons living with an HIV diagnosis in the US were MSM or MSM-IDU.
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cdc.gov/hiv/transgender/index.htm
Transgender communities in the United States (US) are among the groups at highest risk for HIV infection.
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Good point:thumbsup:
 
bri89 said:
I think it’s a false association. **The acceptance of pedophilia is not correlative with the acceptance of homosexuality. **In certain Islamic countries pre-pubescent girls can be married off to much older men, and in those same countries homosexuality is punishable by flogging or worse. In the amish polygamous societies, older men having sex with young girls is not uncommon and this feature is in no way attributable to permissiveness or licentiousness. These are strict cultures. Our modern liberal culture does not have a worse sexual ethic than some highly religious societies.
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Bria,

Acceptance is not correlative is a statement of fact. What do you base this statement of fact on?
 
Bill_Martin said:
I don’t think it is all that muddled.

Sex between adults who freely agree to it: no victim, should not be illegal because of this

Sex where any one of the parties is either unable to or refuses to give consent: there is a victim, should be illegal because of this
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The muddled area is the whole point of the OP. Is pedophila an orientation? Is that determination based only on whether the person engages in activity that happens to be illegal in the state and country where it occurs? If a adult is attracted to children, but does not act on the attraction, is that orientation different from someone who is attracted to members of the same sex but doesn’t act upon those inclinations?

If an adult has sex with someone who is under 18 but who has freely consented, even if it’s illegal, is it disordered? Does it indicate a different sexual orientation? Is it pedophila? Is it still pedophila if the “victim” is 16 and the age of consent in that state is 16?
 
CopticChristian said:
Bria,

Acceptance is not correlative is a statement of fact. What do you base this statement of fact on?
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I base it on the fact the certain cultures, the ones I mentioned, accept pedophilia and simultaneously condemn homosexuality. Saudi Arabia is an example of a country that executes people for homosexual acts and has child brides as young as eight.
 
bri89 said:
I base it on the fact the certain cultures, the ones I mentioned, accept pedophilia and simultaneously condemn homosexuality. Saudi Arabia is an example of a country that executes people for homosexual acts and has child brides as young as eight.
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Bria,

Thank you.

You state “I think it’s a false association”…What is a false association?
 
bri89 said:
the correlation between the two
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Bria,

So you are saying that acceptance of Pedophelia and acceptance of homosexuality are different. Is this correct?

You are basing this on selected cultural practices and then drawing a general conclusion. Is that correct?
 
CopticChristian said:
Bria,

So you are saying that acceptance of Pedophelia and acceptance of homosexuality are different. Is this correct?

You are basing this on selected cultural practices and then drawing a general conclusion. Is that correct?
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Yes, I’m refuting the OPs assumption by citing examples that would contradict his premise.
 
bri89 said:
the correlation between the two
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I am not following. If the legality of pedophilia acts and homosexual acts is flexible depending on the location, and homosexual inclinations are a sexual orientation, how is it false to reach a conclusion that inclinations to pedophilia might also be a sexual orientation? It would seem that either both are sexual orientations or neither are.
 
interestedman said:
This has nothing to do with the aids epidemic in Africa though, where most people with aids are heterosexual.
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Interested,

It is relative to the fact that the spread of AIDS in Africa is due to the promiscuity of the males with infected females and sexual practices. Here in the USA it is linked to drug use and promiscuity by homosexuals. The underlying commonality is prociscuity and unprotected sex.
 
bri89 said:
Yes, I’m refuting the OPs assumption by citing examples that would contradict his premise.
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Bria,

Help me understand your understanding of the OP. I see nothing of homosexuality in the OP. Where is it?
 
interestedman said:
Except your horrible temper has a victim (most likely). Homosexuality doesn’t. Do you see how there is a difference?
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No. A bad temper doesn’t always have a victim and homosexuality isn’t always victimless. But the topic is pedophila. If a person has an inclination toward pedophila but does not act on it, there is no victim. How is that not an sexual orientation?

Whether there is a victim or not should have no bearing on the scientific classification of the person’s sexual inclinations. Victimology is only relevant when you get into what is legal or how to treat the orientation.
 
bri89 said:
I base it on the fact the certain cultures, the ones I mentioned, accept pedophilia and simultaneously condemn homosexuality. Saudi Arabia is an example of a country that executes people for homosexual acts and has child brides as young as eight.
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Allowing a child bride as young as age eight, which seems bizarre to me, is NOT the same thing as pedophilia. For one thing, a man who has sex with his young wife would not be allowed to have sex with another child the same age. For another, in cultures where men marry very young girls, they are expected to remain married to those girls as they age and to continue marital relations with them.

I’m not condoning ‘child brides’ but it is a mistake to think every man (or any man) who takes one is a pedophile.Further, it is a mistake to think members of a society which allows this draw no distinction between a man who takes a young bride and a man who only wants to have sex with children.
 
Corki said:
I am not following. If the legality of pedophilia acts and homosexual acts is flexible depending on the location, and homosexual inclinations are a sexual orientation, how is it false to reach a conclusion that inclinations to pedophilia might also be a sexual orientation? It would seem that either both are sexual orientations or neither are.
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I’m not denying they are both orientations, I’m addressing the conclusion it seems the OP is drawing. It goes if homosexuality is an orientation and people can’t help being that way so we must accept them, then won’t we also be forced to accept pedophilia since they also argue that they have a condition which they can’t help? I take issue with two points. The constant linkage between homosexuality and pedophilia, I used Saudi Arabia as an example of a country that accepts one and condemns the other. Also, simply because a person has an orientation toward something doesn’t mean it should be acted on, but before anyone jumps on that point, it also doesn’t mean it shouldn’t be acted upon either. There are many reasons an orientation toward children should not be acted upon, the most essential one being MUTUALITY. There is no mutual consent between a child and an adult, there is an enormous power imbalance, it’s obviously an exploitative arrangement. Even if a child is manipulated into thinking he or she wants sex with an adult, there is no informed consent on the part of the child. A mutual homosexual relationship between two adults is completely different. People shouldn’t pretend they can’t see the difference.
 
markeverett49 said:
Allowing a child bride as young as age eight, which seems bizarre to me, is NOT the same thing as pedophilia. For one thing, a man who has sex with his young wife would not be allowed to have sex with another child the same age. For another, in cultures where men marry very young girls, they are expected to remain married to those girls as they age and to continue marital relations with them.

I’m not condoning ‘child brides’ but it is a mistake to think every man (or any man) who takes one is a pedophile.Further, it is a mistake to think members of a society which allows this draw no distinction between a man who takes a young bride and a man who only wants to have sex with children.
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True. I agree that just because a man has sex with one little girl that doesn’t make him a pedophile, but it is an act of pedophilia in our culture if that makes sense. This is why I used it as an example.
 
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