You left a few questions unanswered, but instead decided to cross-examine me. That’s fine.
If Catholicism is not based on works, what need is there for the priest? The priest is absolutely necessary to do the work of transforming the bread and wine among other things. All within the RCC must partake of the work of the priest.
The Catechism teaches that the ministerial priesthood is a “means by which Christ unceasingly builds up and leads his Church” (CCC 1547).
In CCC 1548 we read:
In the ecclesial service of the ordained minister, it is Christ himself who is present to his Church as Head of his Body, Shepard of his flock, high priest of the redemptive sacrifice, Teacher of Truth. This is what the Church means by saying that the priest, by virtue of the sacrament of Holy Orders, acts in persona Christi Capitis:
It is the same priest, Christ Jesus, whose sacred person his minister truly represents. Now the minister, by reason of the sacerdotal consecration which he has received, is truly made like to the high priest and possesses the authority to act in the power and place of the person of Christ himself (virtute ac persona ipsius Christi).
Christ is the source of all priesthood: the priest of the old law was a figure of Christ, and the priest of the new law acts in the person of Christ.
In other words, it isn’t the priest’s work.
This is no different than the work of the priest in the OT. Without the OT priest no offering for the sin of the people could be made and no one could be saved, although David had the boldness to find a way around the offering of the OT priest:
For You do not desire sacrifice, or else I would give it; You do not delight in burnt offering. The sacrifices of God are a broken spirit, A broken and a contrite heart-- These, O God, You will not despise. [Ps 51:16,17]
If David was not required to offer through the priest under the law, why is the priest absolutely necessary under grace?
- Okay, let’s throw Scripture verses back and forth. Was David not required to offer sacrifice? That IS a good question!
Let’s start with Psalm 51 and keep reading verses 18-19 (I’ll even use the KJV):
18: Do good in thy good pleasure unto Zion: build thou the walls of Jerusalem.
19: Then shalt thou be pleased with the sacrifices of righteousness, with burnt offering and whole burnt offering: then shall they offer bullocks upon thine altar.
If David did mean that he wasn’t required to offer sacrifice, why did he say that God would be pleased with sacrifices of righteousness just 2 verses later?
So, did David offer sacrifice (something you said he wasn’t required to do)?
Psalm 4:5 Offer the sacrifices of righteousness, and put your trust in the LORD.
Pslam 20:3 Remember all thy offerings, and accept thy burnt sacrifice; Selah.
Psalm 27:6 And now shall mine head be lifted up above mine enemies round about me: therefore will I offer in his tabernacle sacrifices of joy; I will sing, yea, I will sing praises unto the LORD.
Psalm 50:5 Gather my saints together unto me; those that have made a covenant with me by sacrifice.
Psalm 50:8 I will not reprove thee for thy sacrifices or thy burnt offerings, to have been continually before me.
Psalm 54:6 I will freely sacrifice unto thee: I will praise thy name, O LORD; for it is good.
Psalm 66:15 I will offer unto thee burnt sacrifices of fatlings, with the incense of rams; I will offer bullocks with goats. Selah.
Psalm 107:22 And let them sacrifice the sacrifices of thanksgiving, and declare his works with rejoicing.
Psalm 116:17 I will offer to thee the sacrifice of thanksgiving, and will call upon the name of the LORD.
Psalm 141:2 Let my prayer be set forth before thee as incense; and the lifting up of my hands as the evening sacrifice.
And if that isn’t completely clear, let’s go to 1 Chronicles 21:26, “And David built there an altar unto the LORD, and offered burnt offerings and peace offerings, and called upon the LORD; and he answered him from heaven by fire upon the altar of burnt offering.”