I already admitted much earlier that this discussion is way beyond me, (and thus was hardly surprised that my meager post was not responded to) but in re-reading or perhaps more honestly, should say “re-skimming” all the pages, I can say this discussion needs to be far more reigned in as it seems to be going in all directions and circles as well.
- There is ample evidence from the writings of our Founding Fathers (USA) that this is not “in any sense” Christian nation, George Washington wrote a letter saying exactly that to a ‘Moslem’ nation. Also Jefferson’s letter to the Danbury Baptists support this as well.
I say the above to hopefully include the less trained in logic in the discussion because when I read things about which values are valid, and on what basis, whether or not morals are handed down directly from the Divine, etc., I just don’t get anything conclusive from what I’m reading.
Are there concrete logical contradictions then in our current legal framework, and if so are they based on cultural, legal, or religious objections? (eg and only one example at that: whether minorities are given equal status, or simply equal voting, lovely in principle, but wouldn’t mean anything practical as they don’t have enough votes to facilitate any change.)
I’m also aware of how the moral rights differ from legal rights (I think!) but I’d like some practical, specific examples of what is acceptable and not acceptable and based on what framework.
- Can the majority in our framework of government change it to a theocracy if desired or would that require an entirely new Constitution? What of the concept of (avoidance) tyranny of the majority which we supposedly have currently?
- What good are all these voluminous theoretical minutae if most societies if not all on earth have (a) favored the weatlhy and powerful and (b) the reigning philosophical systems almost always significantly fail to live up to their professed values?
To be a bit more direct to the question at hand, (and I’ve stated this elsewhere) all these many pages ignore a very basic ‘fact’ - and that is Gay people (or various incarnations)have always existed, covertly or overtly and the enaction of rights and benefits is not going to automatically lead to various forms of societal breakdown and perversion because it is an illogical premise that the acceptance or rejection of Gays and giving of benefits(legal or economic) is the primary controller of that behavior. In other words, the majority will continue to marry, practice their religion etc. I don’t see this as a threat any more than giving women the right to vote destroyed the family.
I must apologize here, because what I’m thinking is not coming across very well in what I’m writing, and obviously my “best” isn’t very good compared to (most) of the other writers here.