Hmmm…this is quite the conundrum. I had to comment on this further as it lead me to a few thoughts.
Ok so basically we have two camps or two possibilities here - we can all agree that condoms serve a dual purpose…that is to prevent pregnancy, and to decrease (I won’t say stop) but to decrease the possibility of spreading a disease. Now, as it has dual use, we can posit that those uses can be independent of each other…or not. In the Pope’s case we now know he meant the latter use (prevention of disease) to be considered in isolation, hence his referencing the male prostitute scenario.
And I realize that in that case, he meant to say that the use of a condom, as a tool to be used in the prevention of disease, can be beneficial.
But here’s what people who are upset are upset about…it’s that yes, when viewed in isolation…that is…when viewing the act of using a condom during the act of homosexual intercourse, a condom is or can be a useful tool in preventing the spread of disease.
But see…it’s the homosexual act (in this example) that is what leads to the spread of the disease in the first place. Therefore, (in this example), the analogy some are trying to draw between condoms and another forms of medical treatment to prevent the spread of disease fails…because those methods are used independently from the act which would cause the disease.
Simply put, one can’t use a condom to prevent the spread of a disease during homosexual sex unless one first engages in homosexual sex.
Therefore one must engage in homosexual sex and risk getting an STD, in order to prevent getting an STD.
And this logic seems extremely, well…odd to me. Of course I understand that the act of using a condom (when viewed in isolation and independent of the events which lead to its use), isn’t bad or immoral in and of itself…but unfortunately, in the real world and not in theory, it’s impossible for that to take place without also indulging in immoral behavior.