J
James248
Guest
As I said Timothy was part Jewish and part Greek. He was to preach to JewsWhether Jew or gentile, Paul says circumcision is useless.
Galatians 5:2
So why did he have Timothy circumcised? If he was raised Jewish as you say, then Timothy would have already been circumcised… right? So why did Paul have Timothy circumcised?
you completely miss Jerome’s point.
St Jerome responded to this charge of Paul rebuking Peter by observing that,
Peter a Jew, was well aware of the law of Moses, but was playing to those who were weak in their faith and out of fear that he might lose them, did what he did so like the Good Shepherd, would not lose ANYONE given to him.
Do you understand that point?
Now look at what Paul did
In Acts 16:1-3 Paul took a disciple named Timothy… and on account of the Jews of that region, Paul had Timothy a gentile, circumcised.
Then
Regardless of what Paul did after or Peter’s intentions, Peter’s decision wasn’t good. In order for an act to be good the intent AND the circumstances must be good. The intent: unknown from Paul’s letter. The circumstances: shaming his fellow Gentile Christians.Acts 18:18, Acts 21: 18-26 Paul shaved his head, purified himself and made sacrifice according to the Mosaic law, which he had previously said is no longer to be followed. Catch that? Paul rebukes Peter while giving himself a pass on far more.