C
Contarini
Guest
It’s historical nonsense. For one thing, the understanding of the Crusades being presented isn’t supported by any of the recent scholarship on the Crusades. For another, the movement to enforce celibacy for priests predated the Crusades (the campaign continued after the Crusades had begun, granted). And finally, the use of the NT to glorify celibacy and hold it up as an ideal goes back to the very early Church. In both East and West, monasticism was held to be the highest form of Christian life. And in the West, there were attempts to get priests to be celibate as early as the 3rd century, if I remember rightly. The difference in the 11th century was that priests were actually separated from their wives rather than just being told that they really shouldn’t be having sex with them, as previously.This person is commenting on the reason for priestly celibacy in the Church in the most tactful manner they can manage I presume. I was wondering if I could have some more enlightened Catholics respond to some of the things mentioned in the quote above. I’m especially curious about what they said concerning that the bible may have been edited to justify priestly celibacy?
My former professor Elizabeth Clark (who is by the way an ex-Christian, though one might argue that since she’s an ex-Protestant her biases sometimes incidentally line up with those of Catholics!) wrote an excellent book called Reading Renunciation in which she discusses how early Christians interpreted Scripture to support asceticism (she’s talking especially of interpretations of the Old Testament, which is not on the face of it very ascetic much of the time!). She argues that ascetic attitudes are deeply rooted in the NT and can’t be seen as some kind of later departure from NT ethics. Certainly the reading strategies she describes show up very early in the history of the Church.
Edwin