Rejection of the immaculate conception says that God is incapable of creating a human without Original Sin.
Rejection of the continued sinlessness of the Blessed Virgin is to say that God is incapable of protecting the vessel that will bear Him from sin.
Rejection of the perpetual virginity of Mary is to deny that Mary was “full of grace.” Special graces are needed to live a celibate life. Being full of grace, God provided Mary with these graces.
As you see not only is rejection of the Dogmas insulting to the Blessed Virgin, they are denying the truth of the Holy Scriptures, and even denying the power of God. Rejection of the Marian Dogmas is evil indeed.
Well explain how can Jesus become sin if he was not made to have sinfull flesh as this peice states?
“For he hath made him (Jesus) to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.” 2 Corinthians 5:21
Do not forget about this one “For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;” Romans 3:23 Oh and there are plenty of others even in the OT by the way.
Here is another one to show that I am not just nit picking scriptures or taking them out of context. “As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one:” Romans 3:10
“But the scripture hath concluded all under sin…” Galatians 3:22
Why would somebody say they needed a savior if she was sinless? “And Mary said, My soul doth magnify the Lord, And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour.” Luke 1:46-47
Verify this one to me??? “The Church’ s devotion to the Blessed Virgin is intrinsic to Christian worship.” Pg. 253, #971
Also, are we sure that the full of grace means sinlessness? My NIB and many others which are catholic in nature say highly favored? Also, there is a difference in the greek meaning when Jesus is called full of grace and truth. Therefore, how can we conclude the same rendering?
Charitoo: akin to charis, to endow with charis, primarily signified to make graceful or gracious, and came to denote, in Hellenistic Greek, to cause to find favour, Luke 1:28, “highly favoured” (margin, “endued with grace”) . . . Grace implies more than favour; grace is a free gift, favour may be deserved or gained" (An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, by W.E. Vine).
- If they want to use “full of grace” it still should be rendered as “having been filled with grace” (again a perfect, passive, participle).
- They would then have to render Eph 1:6 as:
to [the] praise of the glory of His grace, by which He filled us with grace in the Beloved,
The point is, no matter what the translation, whatever is said of Mary MUST be true of all other believers as well. So translate as they will they can’t evade the fact that nothing is said of Mary that is not also said of all other believers.
So if Luke 1:28 somehow “proves” Mary is sinless and immaculately conceived, then so are all believers. The first IS true; we are sinless as a result of being forgiven in Christ, but we weren’t born that way, and neither was Mary.
I personally love Mary and all other saints to whom and through whom have demonstrated his power and glory so that all may no the one true God. However, God is not partial with whom he loves. He dosen’t withhold Glory from others the word of God teaches this even in the Old testament which came first the NT but fulfills it.