Protestants, How could an Infallible book be of use to you, w/o an Infallible Interpreter?

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CMatt25 said:
I can’t disagree unless these verses exclude the NT from what became Scripture.

Acts 17:10-11 As soon as night came, the believers sent Paul and Silas to Berea. When they arrived, they went to the synagogue. The people there were more open-minded than the people in Thessalonica. They listened to the message with great eagerness, and every day they studied the Scriptures to see if what Paul said was really true.

But even so the Apostle John begins his first epistle with, We write to you…

Who’s “you” if not the people reading what was written? Can’t be solely for the apostles because they were the “we”. 🤷
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I said read John 13 to 18 and see an example of Christ speaking only to His Apostles.

Try Matthew 16:13 through verse 20 and see another example spoken only to the Apostles.

There are many examples such as the ones above. You search back through and it will say who He was speaking too; i.e.multitudes, Pharisees, Sadducees, disciples or whoever. Then see how it can be applied to yourself. He did not appoint/ordain the multitudes, therefore how can we appoint/ordain ourselves?
 
polgas733 said:
How could an Infallible book be of use to you, w/o an Infallible Interpreter?

please don’t say “we have the Holy Spirit with us”
because there is no way there can be morethan 30,000 Holy Spirit

and hence the word “Holy Spirit” it is not Plural:)
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Great question!
 
Prodigal_Son1 said:
Because the teachings are contained within specific stories. Read John 13 to 18 and you’ll see discussions that only took place between the Apostles, that Christ appointed over His Church, and Christ Himself. Those are specific instructions to those men of the Church. We can learn through the examples provided, and understand the teachings from the men of the Church, we cannot however, assume ourselves authority not rightfully appointed to us.

Now, provide the scriptures that will assure us that you and only you have the correct interpretation over all others.
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People, this thread is giving me a headache. Mention infallibility and wow.

Catholics and Protestants share the One most important infallible truth of all. We all walk with Christ. And hopefully we share other things He taught us for righteousness which we strive for. Love, peace, helping the poor, caring for the sick, and so on.

Now if one believer interprets Matt 16 for instance to mean the RCC and infallibilty, that is that person’s interpretation and belief. If another interprets it to mean a church built on a declaration of faith, that is their interpretation and belief. We are Christians first I hope and we’ll know the truth of every other detail when we are with the truth forever.
 
Prodigal_Son1 said:
Because the teachings are contained within specific stories. Read John 13 to 18 and you’ll see discussions that only took place between the Apostles, that Christ appointed over His Church, and Christ Himself. Those are specific instructions to those men of the Church. We can learn through the examples provided, and understand the teachings from the men of the Church, we cannot however, assume ourselves authority not rightfully appointed to us.

Now, provide the scriptures that will assure us that you and only you have the correct interpretation over all others.
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1 Cor 2:14 The man without the Spirit does not accept the things that come from the Spirit Of God, for they are foolishness to him and he cannot understand them because they are spiritually discerned.

I said I understood what I have read. He was indeed tallking to the apostles, but to each one of us also. If what you say is correct,why did Jesus just say this is not for common man?
 
CMatt25 said:
People, this thread is giving me a headache. Mention infallibility and wow.

Catholics and Protestants share the One most important infallible truth of all. We all walk with Christ. And hopefully we share other things He taught us for righteousness which we strive for. Love, peace, helping the poor, caring for the sick, and so on.

Now if one believer interprets Matt 16 for instance to mean the RCC and infallibilty, that is that person’s interpretation and belief. If another interprets it to mean a church built on a declaration of faith, that is their interpretation and belief. We shall know the truth of every other detail when we are with the truth forever.
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How right you are we are the church: believers in Christ.
 
tweetymom said:
1 Cor 2:14 The man without the Spirit does not accept the things that come from the Spirit Of God, for they are foolishness to him and he cannot understand them because they are spiritually discerned.

I said I understood what I have read. He was indeed tallking to the apostles, but to each one of us also. If what you say is correct,why did Jesus just say this is not for common man?
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**1Co 2:13 Which things also we speak: not in the learned words of human wisdom, but in the doctrine of the Spirit, comparing spiritual things with spiritual.
1Co 2:14 But the sensual man perceiveth not these things that are of the Spirit of God. For it is foolishness to him: and he cannot understand, because it is spiritually examined.
1Co 2:15 But the spiritual man judgeth all things: and he himself is judged of no man.
1Co 2:16 For who hath known the mind of the Lord, that he may instruct him? But we have the mind of Christ. **

These things they speak, he wrote to the Church of Corinthians. But they, the men of the Church have the mind of Christ, to teach the sensual man.

Read 1 Corinthians 3 and see he starts it with:

**1Co 3:1 And I, brethren, could not speak to you as unto spiritual, but as unto carnal. As unto little ones in Christ. **

He could not speak with them as spiritual, but as carnal, for they were like little ones in Christ.
 
tweetymom said:
How right you are we are the church: believers in Christ.
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Christians are the Church and believers of God, just as Catholics are, only we see the Church as authoritative as Christ appointed/ordained men over the Church. He did not make the multitudes the authority over His Church.
 
michaeldaniels said:
Oh Lord …I am aware of that. Did I ever say that it was the original language? I am aware that ancient Hebrew and Greek was the original language…however, since we are speaking English on this board…I was discussing the 1st English Translation which is a DIRECT translation from the Latin and the Latin Vulgate is a DIRECT translation of the Greek
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In reading your statements on this thread this has to be the most ridiculous so far. It’s true the Latin Vulgate is a direct translation of the Greek. But the Greek was taken from Hebrew which is the native language of the Jews. The Greek was written much later and point of fact the Vulgate is riddled with errors. Jerome himself the writer of the Vulgate stated that the Vulgate was not an inspired translation. Jerome continued to state that scripture should only be used for doctrines of faith in the native languages. Hebrew for the OT and Greek for the NT.
 
NDfan said:
In reading your statements on this thread this has to be the most ridiculous so far. It’s true the Latin Vulgate is a direct translation of the Greek. But the Greek was taken from Hebrew which is the native language of the Jews. The Greek was written much later and point of fact the Vulgate is riddled with errors. Jerome himself the writer of the Vulgate stated that the Vulgate was not an inspired translation. Jerome continued to state that scripture should only be used for doctrines of faith in the native languages. Hebrew for the OT and Greek for the NT.
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Can you please provide your sources for stating that the New Testament was written in Hebrew? I was under the impression that Greek was the ‘common’ language of all during those times and that the New Testament scriptures were written in Greek.

What version of the Bible do you personally use?
 
Prodigal_Son1 said:
Can you please provide your sources for stating that the New Testament was written in Hebrew? I was under the impression that Greek was the ‘common’ language of all during those times and that the New Testament scriptures were written in Greek.

What version of the Bible do you personally use?
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Hello Prodigal. I never stated the NT was written in Hebrew although it’s believed that Christ may have spoken Aramaic and possibly Greek. The NT is written in Greek and the OT was always quoted in Hebrew. Re-read my post as this is what I asserted.

As far as versions I use several. New living has a wonderful english translation of the original languages. But I may be unique in that I study scripture in the native languages.
 
NDfan said:
Hello Prodigal. I never stated the NT was written in Hebrew although it’s believed that Christ may have spoken Aramaic and possibly Greek. The NT is written in Greek and the OT was always quoted in Hebrew. Re-read my post as this is what I asserted.

As far as versions I use several. New living has a wonderful english translation of the original languages. But I may be unique in that I study scripture in the native languages.
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Yup, too tired. Need to give it up for tonight. Thanks for the clarification.

I use 10 versions of the Bible to reference and cross reference, including two English translations of the Aramaic, a Greek interlinear, and the Latin Vulgate. One version is the Hebrew Interlinear, but it is only the Old Testament.
 
Prodigal_Son1 said:
Yup, too tired. Need to give it up for tonight. Thanks for the clarification.

I use 10 versions of the Bible to reference and cross reference, including two English translations of the Aramaic, a Greek interlinear, and the Latin Vulgate. One version is the Hebrew Interlinear, but it is only the Old Testament.
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Very close to what I use. I find the message that is being conveyed much more clear when using the native languages against English translations. I also have a Hebrew and Greek dictionary which helps immensely.
 
Prodigal_Son1 said:
Christians are the Church and believers of God, just as Catholics are, only we see the Church as authoritative as Christ appointed/ordained men over the Church. He did not make the multitudes the authority over His Church.
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Great
 
polgas733 said:
How about the Holy Spirit? Guiding the True Church to All Truth
Surely Protestants would believe in that
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That is not the question at hand. The question is "How could an Infallible book be of use to someone without an infallible interpreter. The answer is, from a Protestant’s view, is it is of use to everyone, Catholic and Protestant alike. We all learn from it. There is no one infallible on earth. There will always be questions because the only person who is infallible is God. He will answer your questions when you get to heaven. True, various people are called to spread The Word. But that does not make them infallible. They will make mistakes like you and me. Protestants are just as “called” to seminary as Catholics are. The end result is the same. A human being interpreting The Bible.

Protestants believe the True Chruch is made up of all Christians (regardless of denomination), filled with Love and guided by the Holy Spirit. Not by one person who clames to be above everyone else and closer to God.

But, it has been about 500 years since Martin Luther nailed his 95 Theses on the door of the Church and Protestants and Catholics still disagree. It is sad. Fighting is not what God wanted. And Martin Luther just wanted to take the Corruption out of the church.

We all believe in Jesus so the end result is the same. We will all meet again in Heaven.
 
Prodigal_Son1 said:
Christians are the Church and believers of God, just as Catholics are, only we see the Church as authoritative as Christ appointed/ordained men over the Church. He did not make the multitudes the authority over His Church.
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Catholics are Christian. Protestants are Christian. Orthedox or Christian. We are all Christian.
 
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