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MonicaC
Guest
Hello Bene,Context is everything, Milliardo. In context Elizabeth was speaking to a pregnant Mary. And if she was the “mother” of her Lord, then she is referring to the child within her. I doubt Elizabeth called her the “mother” of her Lord prior to Mary conceiving.
I am very confused by what you said here. I always thought that once a woman becomes pregnant with a child she than is the mother of that child. Now I really don’t think think that St Elizabeth did call Mary mother of her Lord prior to Mary conceiving. Because she wan’t. Now In my own experience I am the “mother” of Michael, I can;t see how anyone could rebut this since I did give birth to him. Now my husband is also named Michael, So of course no one would have ever called me the “mother” of Michael prior to conceiving my little Michael would they have? No.
So I guess what I am saying is that once you concieve someone you are than their mother for all time.
Correct me if I am wrong.
Monica