G
guanophore
Guest
It is true, he did not command it. He highly recommended it, and if a person was married, it did not prevent him from becoming a bishop, but he had to have his own household in order. However,marriage is not a requirement for a bishop. Polygamy disqualifies on from the bishopric.Paul did not command church leader to be celebate. He did say if the sex drive could not be controled, then they should get married. In fact he said bishops should be the husband of one wife and his children must be ruley.
The catholic church has the authority to command given by Jesus. However, if you are referring to celibacy, this is a gift from God that cannot be “commanded”. God gives gifts whereever He chooses. The Church’s duty is to recognize the gifts and use them properly. The Latin Rite prefers to choose priests from among those who are so gifted, for the benefit of the Church.
- Why does the CC command something that the NT does not command
Celibacy is a gift. It is always possible to receive God’s gifts.
- but encourages marriage when celebacy is not possible.
No, Doki, it does not . You clearly have very little understanding of the nature of celibacy, and the problems in the Catholic priesthood. A man who forsakes his vows will be the same faithless man whether he is married, or not.
- Sure would solve a lot of problems for the CC if they’d let their priest be married: less sexual problems and more priest.