Where does JPII say that it is dependant on acceptance by free will.
Christ united to each man means exactly what it says. SFD is pointing out the only conclusion we can draw from his statement is: if
Christ is united to each man forever, then each man must be in heaven because it would definitely be blasphemy to say that Christ is united to people in hell also.
Please explain away this quote from JPII:
John Paul II, Homily, June 6, 1985:
“The Eucharist is the sacrament of the covenant of the Body and Blood of Christ, of the covenant which is eternal. This is the covenant which embraces all.
This Blood reaches all and saves all.”
I’m sure you know the difference between the Sufficiency and the Efficacy of Christ’s blood given that you already stated that you know about free will.
Do not give me the weak non-argument “it is taken out of context” and “this is not what he means.”