R
RyanL
Guest
…cont’d…
But surely my given examples still hold, since the contracepting mothers did not consent to their pregnancies, since the would-be parents did not consent to having girls or Down’s syndrome children. Simply because they engaged in a separate related act which happened to be voluntary, how does that change the moral analysis of the killing of an unborn human being?
Finally, you claim that the woman waived her rights in her person by engaging in a voluntary act with her spouse, and yet you say that she did NOT waive her rights to kill a “defective” unborn child. What is your basis for parsing her rights? Perhaps it would be more efficient if you simply defined what “rights” you think the woman has. Is it the right to control her procreation? Is it the right to control what happens to her body? What “rights” are you talking about? Unless you define what “rights” you (and the LDS church) claim these mothers have, I’m afraid this will be an exercise of trying to trap water in a corner. Please be explicit.
God Bless,
RyanL
The rape itself was an involuntary act on the victim’s part, true. For this violation of her rights there are legal means of recourse of which she can avail herself. The conception was a separate and distinct act that occurred sometime following the rape. She also did not consent to conception. Because she did not consent to this separate act (which was a consequence of the first), you think she is now morally justified in killing the human being inside of her all the way up to delivery (but not after, even if the delivery is premature).In the case of rape, since the action was not voluntary by one party, but was forced upon her against her wishes, then she must also have some say on whether she wishes to carry through with the consequences of that involuntary act or not.
But surely my given examples still hold, since the contracepting mothers did not consent to their pregnancies, since the would-be parents did not consent to having girls or Down’s syndrome children. Simply because they engaged in a separate related act which happened to be voluntary, how does that change the moral analysis of the killing of an unborn human being?
Finally, you claim that the woman waived her rights in her person by engaging in a voluntary act with her spouse, and yet you say that she did NOT waive her rights to kill a “defective” unborn child. What is your basis for parsing her rights? Perhaps it would be more efficient if you simply defined what “rights” you think the woman has. Is it the right to control her procreation? Is it the right to control what happens to her body? What “rights” are you talking about? Unless you define what “rights” you (and the LDS church) claim these mothers have, I’m afraid this will be an exercise of trying to trap water in a corner. Please be explicit.
God Bless,
RyanL