H
holtster15
Guest
While I was talking to a friend of mine yesterday, we got on the topic of religion and catholicism. He had alot of questions and I answered most of them. But there where some that I wasn’t sure about so I told him to send me the questions he had and I would find them out and get back to him as soon as possible. This is what he sent me, if you could help me out that would be great, thanks.
How could Mary remain a virgin in light of Luke 8:19, Mark 3:31, Matthew 12:46, and Matthew 13:55, 56?
Why do we pray to Saints and Mary to intercede for us? The Bible tells us to pray in the name of Jesus, and He will intercede for us as he sits at the right hand of the Father. Clearly, this is possible because Jesus is NOT dead, He is God, and He is omnipotent. He can hear all our prayers. Yet, dead Saints and Mary are mere humans. They are not even as powerful as angels, (the Bible tells us that humans were made a little lower than the angels). To pray to these dead ancestors is to assert that they can hear all our prayers and “watch over us”, which is not Biblically supported in any way. In fact, when Jesus died and the Temple curtain was torn in two, revealing the Holy of Holies, it symbolized our direct access to God. We no longer need anyone to intercede for us, because Jesus does so now instead of the High Priest. Jesus IS the High Priest.
Catholics believe that Communion turns into the actually Body and Blood of Christ upon consumption. Not only does the Bible condemn cannibalism, but Jesus’ favoritism towards parables and metaphors means that his words spoken at the Last Supper should not be taken literally, as the context does not support doing so. How do you explain this interpretation then?
How do you defend the Catholic confessional system? If Jesus’ death forgives us of our sins and gave us direct access to God, why should anyone confess their sins to anyone other than God? Why else did the Temple curtain tear but to demonstrate this truth?..
How could Mary remain a virgin in light of Luke 8:19, Mark 3:31, Matthew 12:46, and Matthew 13:55, 56?
Why do we pray to Saints and Mary to intercede for us? The Bible tells us to pray in the name of Jesus, and He will intercede for us as he sits at the right hand of the Father. Clearly, this is possible because Jesus is NOT dead, He is God, and He is omnipotent. He can hear all our prayers. Yet, dead Saints and Mary are mere humans. They are not even as powerful as angels, (the Bible tells us that humans were made a little lower than the angels). To pray to these dead ancestors is to assert that they can hear all our prayers and “watch over us”, which is not Biblically supported in any way. In fact, when Jesus died and the Temple curtain was torn in two, revealing the Holy of Holies, it symbolized our direct access to God. We no longer need anyone to intercede for us, because Jesus does so now instead of the High Priest. Jesus IS the High Priest.
Catholics believe that Communion turns into the actually Body and Blood of Christ upon consumption. Not only does the Bible condemn cannibalism, but Jesus’ favoritism towards parables and metaphors means that his words spoken at the Last Supper should not be taken literally, as the context does not support doing so. How do you explain this interpretation then?
How do you defend the Catholic confessional system? If Jesus’ death forgives us of our sins and gave us direct access to God, why should anyone confess their sins to anyone other than God? Why else did the Temple curtain tear but to demonstrate this truth?..