those who don’t buy the claim that exposure to porn causes one to be straight/bi/gay aren’t those ones who need to produce evidence. The burden of proof is always on those who make the claim.
Since I never claimed that, I’ll leave the task to someone who does, if someone does.
But those who claim it is caused somewhat by nurture have to come up with evidence. Those who don’t buy the nurture argument don’t have to prove that it isn’t caused by nurture unless they claim that is isn’t. **At present, there is no reliable evidence that it’s caused by nature either. Perhaps until we know for sure, it would be better not to expose children to it, right? **
No, I’m saying someone isn’t going to find it attracting unless s/he is
already attracted to it to some extent. **How can you say that? Who on earth is born with a foot or shoe or corset fetish? Might want to read up on it, really. **
Your argumentation above
might work if you were talking about someone who is already bisexual but starts leaning a little more straight or gay. **It’s also possible, isn’t it, that young people can identify sexual pleasure with some particular thing and pursue it to addiction? Isn’t that pretty much what is said about porn addiction and paraphilia? **
The first thing I noticed was that the author was Paul Cameron. Generally I don’t pay much attention to who the author is, but since Paul Cameron has widely been known for misrepresenting the findings of studies he summarizes and for using terrible methodology in the studies he conducts and has printed in obscure journals, I’m just going to ask you to cite any particular reference use in the article you linked to that you believe demonstrates that, “It has also been established that most homosexuals have had sexual contact with underage members of their gender.” **Well, if you don’t like the man, argue against his argument. **
If the author has been discredited as a person who uses pseudoscience to forward an agenda, I’m not going to go through an entire work that he wrote because that would likely be a waste of time.
So, you didn’t read it.
if I give you studies (actually original research that passed peer-review and got published in credible journals) would you change your mind?
I don’t know. But I don’t think you have ever understood what I was saying from the first. My position was that WE DON’T KNOW whether the brain activity differences between heterosexual males and homosexual males are inherent or acquired. Since that’s my point, deal with that if you want to and can.
OK. I’ll provide the references to some studies one at a time that show that homosexuals are no more likely to molest children than others and/or the gender of the adult is not necessarily indicative of the adult sexual orientation of the abuser. I’ll start with the following study:
Groth, A.N., Hobson, W.F., & Gary, T.S. (1982). The child molester: Clinical observations.
Journal of Social Work and Human Sexuality, 1 (1/2), 129-144.
The study can be viewed
here. A summary of the study found
here said that it “Studied 175 adult males who were convicted in Massachusetts of sexual assault against a child [with 40% of the victims being male]. None of the men had an exclusively homosexual adult sexual orientation. 83 (47%) were classified as “fixated;” 70 others (40%) were classified as regressed adult heterosexuals; the remaining 22 (13%) were classified as regressed adult bisexuals. Of the last group, Groth and Birnbaum observed that “in their adult relationships they engaged in sex on occasion with men as well as with women. However, in no case did this attraction to men
exceed their preference for women…There were no men who were primarily sexually attracted to other adult males…” (p.180).”
All totally irrelevant to what I was saying. Totally. Never did I say that PEDOPHILES are exclusively, or even necessarily homosexual. (Though one might question the results of incarcerated peoples’ self-reporting) But interestingly, you might have also discovered that a huge percentage of persons incarcerated for child sexual abuse were sexually abused themselves as children. Imprinting, perhaps? If that’s the case for pedophiles, can you really say it’s not possible that some kind of early homosexual “experience” did not influence people who became homosexuals or “bisexuals”? I don’t think you can.
So 40% of the victims were male, but they did not find any of the perpetrators to have a homosexual adult orientation.
First, there will always be quacks, even ones with PhDs, who don’t agree with the overwhelming majority of their peers. It’s generally a good thing that these people will be heavily criticized by their peers because criticism is partly how scientific communities weed out bad ideas.
And this very attitude of intimidation is what prevents honest studies that are NOT politically correct from being done. You proved my point with your own attitude.
Secondly, it’s possible for people to consider something a disorder not because it causes practical problems, but instead because it’s against their personal values. **Of course. Who ever said otherwise? **
There are obviously individuals who are
not attracted to the opposite sex, so there are some people who
are different in that respect and are
not heterosexual. **Yes, there are people who are homosexual. I think we know that. **