C
Cecilianus
Guest
Much of the divergence actually happened from the West deviating from Byzantine tradition (and, to be fair, from both deviating from Oriental tradition - the Orientals are the most conservative, the Byzantines less conservative, and the Latins the least conservative of all). Confessionals were introduced at the Council of Trent to affirm the Sacrament of Confession against Protestantism; before that they were done in front of the altar (as per Byzantine tradition) and the priest would fast before the liturgy of Confession. (For reference, see Karl Rahner’s Theological Investigations volume II, which is where I am getting this from.) The fast was originally the same in both East and West, but the West using Roman law as its theological analogy began to focus on the bare minimum as a legal necessity (carrying with it the penalty of mortal sin for violations of the fast) while the East focused on the maximum ideal one should be striving for in fasting (without having developed a mortal/venial sin distinction, and while viewing breaking of the fast as being part of the process of growing in humility rather than a mortal sin). Consequently the Western fast became laxer (relatively recently, actually - around the 1400s).
Pews were an English tradition that became introduced in Protestant congregations to accomodate the length of the sermons. Before that, Roman Catholic churches had empty sanctuaries like Eastern churches. I don’t know where kneeling came from.
Everyone crossed themselves right to left (Byzantine fashion) until the 1200s. Pope Innocent III noted in his De sacro altaris mysterio that “It is done from above to below, and from the right to the left, because Christ descended from heaven to the earth, and from the Jews He passed to the Gentiles.” He also noted that some people were doing it from left to right, indicating that the shift probably happened around then. Nobody knows why the Orientals (Copts, Maronites, Armenians) do it left to right today.
Theological differences between East and West largely follow difference of language between Greek and Latin. The Latins focused on Aristotelian terminology which often harmonized well with the Latin language (substance and accidents, etc.) and also with the “forensic metaphor” (viewing the Church as jurisdictional and legal in character - for this at its worst see the disputes over the “decrees” of God concerning one’s predestination). The Greeks tended to focus more on God’s “essence” versus “energies” (a word you can’t really even translate into Latin, so far as I know) and the course of dogmatic development in the East tended to follow from this distinction. Most of the divergences in theology happened from dogmatic developments after the estrangement and schism, and the fact that theological development has occurred in both the East and the West (not just the West) has led to apparent disagreements. Often the language of the West is more developed than that in the East - Easterners will often say they prefer not to define mysteries like the Eucharist or the sinlessness of the Panagia though especially if you read St. Gregory Palamas I think the Eastern tradition in these cases really is well defined - and sometimes the Eastern approach to certain doctrines (e.g., the “toll-houses” versus Purgatory) has been incredibly controversial in the East. Other times, the Eastern doctrine (the divine energies, and the Trinitarian doctrine of the eternal energetic manifestation of the Spirit through the Son) is much more advanced than the Latin doctrine (which for example never developed a very terminologically clear understanding of theosis, of gratia increata or the divine energies, or of the distinction between proeinai and exporeusthai which is crucial to the Eastern understanding of the procession of the Spirit but which isn’t made in Latin or any other language that I know of besides Greek).
My point is that there are really quite interesting historical reasons for at least most of the differences.
Pews were an English tradition that became introduced in Protestant congregations to accomodate the length of the sermons. Before that, Roman Catholic churches had empty sanctuaries like Eastern churches. I don’t know where kneeling came from.
Everyone crossed themselves right to left (Byzantine fashion) until the 1200s. Pope Innocent III noted in his De sacro altaris mysterio that “It is done from above to below, and from the right to the left, because Christ descended from heaven to the earth, and from the Jews He passed to the Gentiles.” He also noted that some people were doing it from left to right, indicating that the shift probably happened around then. Nobody knows why the Orientals (Copts, Maronites, Armenians) do it left to right today.
Theological differences between East and West largely follow difference of language between Greek and Latin. The Latins focused on Aristotelian terminology which often harmonized well with the Latin language (substance and accidents, etc.) and also with the “forensic metaphor” (viewing the Church as jurisdictional and legal in character - for this at its worst see the disputes over the “decrees” of God concerning one’s predestination). The Greeks tended to focus more on God’s “essence” versus “energies” (a word you can’t really even translate into Latin, so far as I know) and the course of dogmatic development in the East tended to follow from this distinction. Most of the divergences in theology happened from dogmatic developments after the estrangement and schism, and the fact that theological development has occurred in both the East and the West (not just the West) has led to apparent disagreements. Often the language of the West is more developed than that in the East - Easterners will often say they prefer not to define mysteries like the Eucharist or the sinlessness of the Panagia though especially if you read St. Gregory Palamas I think the Eastern tradition in these cases really is well defined - and sometimes the Eastern approach to certain doctrines (e.g., the “toll-houses” versus Purgatory) has been incredibly controversial in the East. Other times, the Eastern doctrine (the divine energies, and the Trinitarian doctrine of the eternal energetic manifestation of the Spirit through the Son) is much more advanced than the Latin doctrine (which for example never developed a very terminologically clear understanding of theosis, of gratia increata or the divine energies, or of the distinction between proeinai and exporeusthai which is crucial to the Eastern understanding of the procession of the Spirit but which isn’t made in Latin or any other language that I know of besides Greek).
My point is that there are really quite interesting historical reasons for at least most of the differences.