RSV-CE Needs Corrections

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mmortal,
I wasn’t sure if you were keeping this effort up. But since you posted today, I thought I’d mention something I noticed in the Old Testament during a recent study of Exodus. Throughout Exodus (and possibly the entire OT), the 1st edition RSVCE refers to the “people of Israel.” The 2nd edition RSVCE has changed this to “sons of Israel.” The DR uses “children of Israel.” I’m not sure how relevant these differences are, but I have not seen them noted before.
Thanks, I’ll add that to the list. The RSV OT wasn’t changed in any revision until the Ignatius Second Edition, so the rendering “people of Israel” should also match the 1959 and 1971 RSV. Does anyone have an example verse of this so that I can double check these?
I looked a little through the Old Testament today and came up with the instances noted below. The list is not complete…its just what I noted in a short period of time.

A.) In the following verses, the RSVCE has “people” of Israel, the RSV2CE has “sons,” and the DR has “children”: Ex 1:9, 1:13, 2:23, 2:25, 3:9, 3:13, 3:14, 3:15, 5:14, 5:19, 6:5, 12:37, 13:2, 14:2, 14:8, 17:1, 25:2, 30:12, 31:13, 35:1; Lev 1:2, 4:2, 12:2; Num 1:2, 2:2; Deut 3:18, 10:6.

B.) In the following instances, the RSVCE agrees with the RSV2CE and uses “sons”: **Ex **1:1, 3:10 and 3:11.

C.) The following cases are the same as case A; however, the DR is a little different and “children” occurs in a slightly different verse: Ex. 1:12, and 39:32.

D.) Finally, in this last case, the DR is slightly different and “children” is simply missing: **Ex **19:1.

So, these are a few examples of what I was talking about. I am confused about why the RSVCE and RSV2CE agree in a few cases, but differ in a majority of them. Is the same word being translated differently depending on the usage, or are there different words used in these cases? If anyone knows, I’d be interested in hearing the answer.

Sincerely,
rock8rob
 
porthos, I’m with you there, as that is nowhere near as key as the “young woman”/“virgin”, “full of grace”/“favored one” type distinctions. I am prepared to accept the RSV-SCE with some minor imperfections like that, since no translation is perfect.
Whatever praise Fr. Corapi has for the RSV-CE, I know he hates the footnote that explains that the manna in the desert is insect dung. He referenced that to some unnamed scholar, but I found it there in the RSV footnote.

I have just finished reading the OT, and I notice that there are oscillating spellings of Nebuchadnezzar as Nebuchadrezzar. And, I didn’t spot anything explaining that difference. It would seem to be a translator/publisher error. Surely I am no expert of any degree, but I think there’s a problem there (ala the subject of this thread).​

The intro of the RSV-SCE (second catholic edition) says that it is not perfect and that some of the translations are probably arbitrary.

My guess is that there was so much opposition to the NAB that the Church decided to fall back on this handy version. I wonder what effect, if any, the 2008 Fall Synod in Rome on the use of scripture in the Church might have in spurring corrections etc.
 

I have just finished reading the OT, and I notice that there are oscillating spellings of Nebuchadnezzar as Nebuchadrezzar. And, I didn’t spot anything explaining that difference. It would seem to be a translator/publisher error. Surely I am no expert of any degree, but I think there’s a problem there (ala the subject of this thread).​

There is no problem. Nebuchadrezzar is an alternative spelling for Nebuchadnezzar, and appears as such in some parts of the Hebrew Old Testament. In fact, Nebuchadrezzar is closer to the original Akkadian name, Nabu-kudurri-usur. The RSV editors simply rendered the name as they appeared in the critical editions. Some translations, on the other hand, stick to one spelling across the board. (e.g. TEV).
 
My guess is that there was so much opposition to the NAB that the Church decided to fall back on this handy version. I wonder what effect, if any, the 2008 Fall Synod in Rome on the use of scripture in the Church might have in spurring corrections etc.
Whether the “handy version” to which you refer is the RSV-CE or RSV-2CE is not clear, but, in either case, I don’t see where the Church has “fall(en) back on” it; to wit, the USA still uses the modified RNAB, many countries use the 1966 JB, and too many are looking with favor on the NRSV. :confused:
 
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The intro of the RSV-SCE (second catholic edition) says that it is not perfect and that some of the translations are probably arbitrary.
Just in case you didn’t realize it…the introduction to the RSV-2CE is actually just a reprint of the original introduction to the 1966 RSV-CE (1st edition). It is a little misleading because there actually have been Old Testament changes in the second Catholic edition, and this intro for the original version states that there were none.

rocketrob
 
Just in case you didn’t realize it…the introduction to the RSV-2CE is actually just a reprint of the original introduction to the 1966 RSV-CE (1st edition). It is a little misleading because there actually have been Old Testament changes in the second Catholic edition, and this intro for the original version states that there were none.

rocketrob
I never had the impression from the Intro to the RSV-CE of 1965-66 that some parts of the translation were “arbitrary”, as crumpy seems to imply. And, yes, the Intro to the RSV-2CE would be misleading if it’s that of the original RSV-CE.
 
I never had the impression from the Intro to the RSV-CE of 1965-66 that some parts of the translation were “arbitrary”, as crumpy seems to imply. And, yes, the Intro to the RSV-2CE would be misleading if it’s that of the original RSV-CE.
The intro to the RSV-2CE is in fact the original 1966 intro, but at least its labeled as such. The same intro is in the compact RSV-CEs with the 1971 NT, but its not identified as being an older introduction there.

I believe the intro text that’s being referred to above is as follows:

“In the present edition the aim has not been to improve the translation as such. No doubt there are many places where a different rendering might have been chosen on critical grounds. This has been avoided. But there are other places where, the critical evidence being evenly balanced, considerations of Catholic tradition have favored a particular rendering or the inclusion of a passage omitted by the RSV translators.”

The next paragraph begins:

“In the Old Testament it has not been thought necessary to make any changes in the text.”

This particular statement is true of the RSV-CE versions, but not the RSV-2CE, and no update to the introduction was made in this regard. But I think this has been a known issue.

But Manfred…I have to say that I’ve been easing up a bit on my opinion of the RSV-2CE. I think the layout with section headers is useful, and in several places its closer to the Douay Rheims (ie, the Latin Vulgate) than the original. So at least its a move in the right direction.

rocketrob
 
But Manfred…I have to say that I’ve been easing up a bit on my opinion of the RSV-2CE. I think the layout with section headers is useful, and in several places its closer to the Douay Rheims (ie, the Latin Vulgate) than the original. So at least its a move in the right direction.
As I have said before, I humbly disagree, (sorry if I am beating a dead horse). I guess it really doesn’t matter, except as a theoretical criticism of the revision committee’s goals if a further revision is made. (In other words, I think they may be going down the wrong path with it.)

I think the places where it looks as if they brought it closer to the Douay Rheims were either the most inconsequential points as they could have possibly chosen for revision, or were regressions.

Here they are (that we know of):

Isaiah 7.14: LXX “virgin” (I am, I guess controversially, against them changing it to “virgin” here, that is, if in the rest of the translation they are steadfast with following the MT)
Psalm 8.5: LXX “little less than the angels” (same reasoning as the previous one)
Matthew 16.18: “gates of Hades” (they still didn’t get this right, it should say “hell”)
John 3.16: “only-begotten Son” (this one has been knocked around back and forth, over and over again for various reasons but to me, doesn’t really matter either way)
Throughout OT: “mercy” ; “donkey” (mercy is just not the right word for these places, and it can further be doctrinally ambiguous/confusing. the “censoring” of the other name for the donkey is just silly if that was the point, and if it was instead for the purposes of modern English clarity, I still think it was kind of splitting hairs)
Exodus 15.13: “merciful love” (atrociously confusing translation caused by trying to add “mercy” to everywhere else, and then having to come up with this “merciful love” thing to disambiguate between the two )
Various verses in NT: “behold”, “baby” (I think “lo” and “babe” are what are in the DR, right, and what people traditionally prefer? Can someone verify?)
Various last supper references: “chalice” (this is an anachronism)

1 John 5.16-17 “deadly sin” (isn’t mortal sin, like it is rendered in the other editions, more appropriate? Calling it “deadly sin”, because the DR says “death” is pointlessly confusing, especially if it is archaic, its like they want to modernize some parts, but then bring back the traditional wording in others!?)

Song Sol. 2.12: “time of pruning” (this is inconsequential to me, but I think someone did mention the significance somewhere in this thread)

Most of the rest of these are possibly useful, in that some of them include parts of source material that were missing from the main text or the text in total in previous editions, however, I don’t know enough to comment on their accuracy or worthiness.

Someone should pipe in about the importance of the changes they made to the two Psalms here. My opinion of these is that if these are the only positives the 2CE has over the hybrid, you could just as well write these in to the margins of the hybrid edition if you really care enough to have them. In other words, it wouldn’t be worth these alone to buy the RSV-2CE.

Song Sol. 2.10: “Arise, my love, my dove, my fair one, and come away”
Psalms 2.12: “rejoice” (“kiss his feet” moved to footnotes)
Psalms 110.3: “Yours is dominion…”
Psalms 110.3: “…in holy splendor…” (1959/1971 translation footnoted)
Psalms 110.3: “…I begot you.” (1959/1971 translation footnoted)
 
mmortal03,
I don’t want to beat a dead horse, either. Each version has its own advantages, and we’re just in a position for now where we have to decide which one meets most of our needs. As I’ve learned more over the years since this thread started, I have started to agree with you and wish that updates to the RSV-CE would have started with the 1971 New Testament as a baseline.

Regarding some of your points, I don’t fully understand the controversy about John 3:16, but either way it doesn’t change my understanding based on all the other scripture on this point.

I understand the “chalice” discussion, but “chalice” is used throughout the D-R. So, why did St. Jerome make this choice then? Is there no justification other than the traditional use of a chalice in the Mass?

Finally, the merciful vs. steadfast love argument is something that I’d like to learn more about. If its in this thread, I can dig again…but if you know a link, I’d appreciate it. The one place I checked, the RSV-2CE seemed to agree more with the D-R in using a concept of mercy. So, I’m not totally getting why this is such an issue.

Sincerely,
rocketrob

Something more for you ‘differences’ list:

In Luke 1:34, the RSV-2CE reads “And Mary said to the angel, ‘How can this be,* since I have no husband?’”
  • 1:34: How can this be: alternate reading is How will this be.
Also, Isaiah 7:14 still has a fairly explicit footnote discussing the “virgin” vs. “young woman” rendering. So, the “young woman” possibility has not been completely whitewashed from the edition.
 
Regarding some of your points, I don’t fully understand the controversy about John 3:16, but either way it doesn’t change my understanding based on all the other scripture on this point.
I don’t remember whether or not it was discussed here, but I have looked into the “begotten” part elsewhere on the Internet, and there are various opinions and ideas regarding things like the probability of misinterpretation, as well as some other points. See what you can find on it and get back to me.
I understand the “chalice” discussion, but “chalice” is used throughout the D-R. So, why did St. Jerome make this choice then? Is there no justification other than the traditional use of a chalice in the Mass?
Well, I am not an expert in the Latin, but calicem, while it is the root word of our current English word chalice, isn’t necessarily understood to mean in English the same thing in the modern context. But, yes, chalice can just mean “cup”, but in the visual sense that it will be pictured in the heads of Catholics, I think it may come across an anachronism, as the “chalice” of Jesus was supposedly not very ornate, as the Church’s are now. Not that chalices have to be ornate, but also, I am not even sure what the definitive shape of cup Christ might have used would be that of a chalice, or not, either.

However, the Church has also referred to the cup at the last supper as a chalice in the past, so I guess, from that standpoint, it is a moot point.

From dictionary.com:
chal·ice
–noun
  1. Ecclesiastical.
    a. a cup for the wine of the Eucharist or Mass.
    b. the wine contained in it.
  2. a drinking cup or goblet.
  3. a cuplike blossom.
    [Origin: bef. 900; ME < MF < L calici- (s. of calix) cup; r. ME caliz, calc, OE calic < L calici-, as above]
Calicem is the masculine accusative singular form of calix, meaning, from Notre Dame’s Latin word look up website: a vessel for drinking.

Just to be clear, I wasn’t the one that originated this anachronism idea, anyway, so I could be repeating a falsehood (maybe I should be more careful), however, I do find it odd that they felt the need to make it say chalice, when it is overwhelmingly translated as cup everywhere else. (Yes, an appeal to majority that isn’t a sound logical argument, but you can at least get the gist of what I mean from that.)
Finally, the merciful vs. steadfast love argument is something that I’d like to learn more about. If its in this thread, I can dig again…but if you know a link, I’d appreciate it. The one place I checked, the RSV-2CE seemed to agree more with the D-R in using a concept of mercy. So, I’m not totally getting why this is such an issue.
I searched around the Internet before and read some various things on this and came to my current conclusion. I may have posted some links about it earlier in this thread, if they didn’t get deleted during that server crash a while back. I otherwise would have to go back and search around all over again, myself.
Something more for you ‘differences’ list:
In Luke 1:34, the RSV-2CE reads “And Mary said to the angel, ‘How can this be,* since I have no husband?’”
  • 1:34: How can this be: alternate reading is How will this be.
Also, Isaiah 7:14 still has a fairly explicit footnote discussing the “virgin” vs. “young woman” rendering. So, the “young woman” possibility has not been completely whitewashed from the edition.
As Manfred will tell you, he doesn’t, nor I, deny the fact that the footnotes contain these. He and I may differ on which combination of each of the two possibilities we think should be in the main text, but we both will agree that at least one of the footnoted parts should have been in the main text, no contest, and that is “How will (or shall) this be”! Our point is that if the better rendering is in the footnotes, why isn’t it in the main text?!
 
If real Catholics took out all the errors in doctrine that are found in the RSV then it would be fit to read.
 
If real Catholics took out all the errors in doctrine that are found in the RSV then it would be fit to read.
Have you contacted Ignatius Press? I did not peruse the entire list, but I do not see where doctrinal error exists. And, who’s to say that the 1965 edition was not replete with errors that have been addressed? Please enlighten me.

Christ’s peace.
 
mmortal03,

I definitely appreciate these charts that you linked. I agree with you in regards to a lot of the changes in RSV-2CE. I think for the most part they were not warrented. Also, the thing that bothers me most is the fact that they will not release a list of all the changes, nor will they let us know who did the editorial changes. Personally, that doesn’t sit well with me. I am one who likes to know who is on translation committees. Ultimately, I decided to get the Oxford RSV-CE readers edition. Although it currently doesn’t have all the bells and whistles like maps and cross-references, the quality of binding is superior to Ignatius and there is room for me to add a list of cross-references and maps.
 
in regards to the RSV-CE needing corrections, I think not only the RSV-CE, but the NAB, JB, NJB all need corrections. I feel that the RSV needs a lot of corrections. I have seen the Confraternity and Douay and read from each. The RSV-CE, NAB, JB, NJB just don’t come close and they just don’t cut it for me. I would revise them to be more like either the Douay or Confraternity. I would eliminate the RSV-CE completely, it has no business in the Catholic Church whatsoever.
 
in regards to the RSV-CE needing corrections, I think not only the RSV-CE, but the NAB, JB, NJB all need corrections. I feel that the RSV needs a lot of corrections. I have seen the Confraternity and Douay and read from each. The RSV-CE, NAB, JB, NJB just don’t come close and they just don’t cut it for me. I would revise them to be more like either the Douay or Confraternity. I would eliminate the RSV-CE completely, it has no business in the Catholic Church whatsoever.
Tobinator,

C’mon man! We have been over this dozens of times, so I am not going to clarify with you the Church’s teaching on this issue. It is clear and obvious…go back to the multitude of posts on this issue. Just read and love your Douay-Rheims which is great, but don’t continue your incorrect diatribe against all the modern translation that translate from the “original languages”, in particular the RSV. Your critiques have no basis and they are clearly outside of the norm of current Catholic usage by Popes, bishops, and biblical scholars.
 
a protestant based translation does not belong in the Catholic Church.These are just my thoughts on corrections in general. It doesn’t mean that any of this would actually happen because it won’t. I feel a lot of translations need major revisions. I want a translation of the Bible translated by CATHOLICS and not Catholics and Protestants. The fact that all Bibles need some corrections in one way or another except the Vulgate(from Jerome’s version through Clementine) which is free from doctrinal error. The Nova Vulgata is the only exception in the case of the Vulgate, because it parts ways with those based from Jerome’s through the Clementine. The RSV-CE has brought Protestantism into the church and therefore needs corrected. Protestant based translation= Protestant based views.
 
a protestant based translation does not belong in the Catholic Church.These are just my thoughts on corrections in general. It doesn’t mean that any of this would actually happen because it won’t. I feel a lot of translations need major revisions. I want a translation of the Bible translated by CATHOLICS and not Catholics and Protestants. The fact that all Bibles need some corrections in one way or another except the Vulgate(from Jerome’s version through Clementine) which is free from doctrinal error. The Nova Vulgata is the only exception in the case of the Vulgate, because it parts ways with those based from Jerome’s through the Clementine. The RSV-CE has brought Protestantism into the church and therefore needs corrected. Protestant based translation= Protestant based views.
Do you think it was an error that the Nova Vulgata parted ways with some of the textual decisions in the old Latin text?
 
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