R
rocketrob
Guest
mmortal,
I wasn’t sure if you were keeping this effort up. But since you posted today, I thought I’d mention something I noticed in the Old Testament during a recent study of Exodus. Throughout Exodus (and possibly the entire OT), the 1st edition RSVCE refers to the “people of Israel.” The 2nd edition RSVCE has changed this to “sons of Israel.” The DR uses “children of Israel.” I’m not sure how relevant these differences are, but I have not seen them noted before.
I looked a little through the Old Testament today and came up with the instances noted below. The list is not complete…its just what I noted in a short period of time.Thanks, I’ll add that to the list. The RSV OT wasn’t changed in any revision until the Ignatius Second Edition, so the rendering “people of Israel” should also match the 1959 and 1971 RSV. Does anyone have an example verse of this so that I can double check these?
A.) In the following verses, the RSVCE has “people” of Israel, the RSV2CE has “sons,” and the DR has “children”: Ex 1:9, 1:13, 2:23, 2:25, 3:9, 3:13, 3:14, 3:15, 5:14, 5:19, 6:5, 12:37, 13:2, 14:2, 14:8, 17:1, 25:2, 30:12, 31:13, 35:1; Lev 1:2, 4:2, 12:2; Num 1:2, 2:2; Deut 3:18, 10:6.
B.) In the following instances, the RSVCE agrees with the RSV2CE and uses “sons”: **Ex **1:1, 3:10 and 3:11.
C.) The following cases are the same as case A; however, the DR is a little different and “children” occurs in a slightly different verse: Ex. 1:12, and 39:32.
D.) Finally, in this last case, the DR is slightly different and “children” is simply missing: **Ex **19:1.
So, these are a few examples of what I was talking about. I am confused about why the RSVCE and RSV2CE agree in a few cases, but differ in a majority of them. Is the same word being translated differently depending on the usage, or are there different words used in these cases? If anyone knows, I’d be interested in hearing the answer.
Sincerely,
rock8rob