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mike0219116
Guest
From the same commentary, it says that the MT agrees with the Vulgate in the case of Malachi 1:11.Thanks for mentioning this. While I had initially mentioned the Malachi verse from reading it elsewhere (albeit cutting and pasting from there and misspelling it as “Malichi”), it was not a function of my knowledge sohwing through. I do not know which is the better translation in this case. I noticed that another poster, Psalm45:9, mentioned it as well. Could it be that this is one of those places where we should rely on the LXX? How does the Masoretic Text translate into English here? Might it be that the traditional DRV fails in this particular case?
It’s threads like these that make me wish I could read and understand a dead language or two.