O
o_mlly
Guest
Isn’t that a bit of a quibble? Then, call the objects I listed as proximate ends (using JPII’s adjective).I asked about the objects of the two acts; your response is about the consequences of the acts.
I still believe you invert the relationships between object and intent. The object lists all proximate ends. The intent specifies the end(s) in view of a particular actor. For instance, if the one tied to the tracks is specified as “Fred” then a proximate end to throwing the switch changes to: “kills one innocent person named Fred.” If the actor’s intention is to kill Fred, his arch-enemy, then the act is immoral in its intention.Beyond that, an end relates to an intent, an objective, and it is not true that the person throwing the switch intends both consequences even thought they are both inevitable.
Please respond then to the edited post’s main questions: Are acting and not acting morally equivalent?:
The act has two proximate ends – kills 1 innocent and saves 4 innocents.
The non-act also has two proximate ends – allows 4 innocents to die by another’s hand and saves 1 innocent from death at your hand.
Is permitting an evil morally equivalent to committing an evil? I think not. Permitting an evil to avoid committing an evil (c.p.) prevents an eternal evil – the damnation of one’s soul – and outweighs any temporal evil, even if that evil is the massacre of an entire nation.
Last edited: