Scriptural evidence for "pre-mortal existence". Is there any?

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He does not want to hear. To hear is to understand. To understand is to be aware of the the truth. To be aware of the truth is to be Catholic
Well, outside of this, it is possible to have an understanding of what other people believe without converting to their beliefs. I’ve met very few Mormons who are able to get out of the “looking for proof of a great apostasy at all times” long enough to actually listen. None here, that I can recall.
 
Thank you, I agree! But that’s what I seem to be hearing.
Which part of Rebecca’s post do you agree with, and why? Your agreement with her seems very vague to me. She mentioned several opposing viewpoints and asked many questions that you completely ignored. Without getting any answers to her questions, there’s no way of telling whether or not you really understand anything she said, at all. You certainly seem to take things out of context in people’s posts, the same way LDS take phrases out of context from the Bible to ‘prove’ their points.
And that’s my entire point. If you take the viewpoint that we were all 100% created by God, then He’s responsible for our proclivities, good or evil.
No, He isn’t. We have free will to do whatever we please, after He creates us. God creates us to do good, so we can share His love for all eternity. We’re the ones that choose to reject God and do evil, because we’re more interested in loving ourselves, and having all the pleasures of this mortal existence, than we are with loving God. Eventually, we start to have more in common with the animals, than we do with human beings. We become more and more self-centered, instead of Christ-centered, and end up completely separating ourselves from God and humanity. The most important factor in all goodness is love. Love for God, first, then love for our fellow man. If we don’t have true love and respect for God, as well as for all of humanity (including our enemies), then we don’t have anything in common with God.
Whereas if we are eternal beings, sent here to prove ourselves, then God cannot be blamed for the evil we do. He only allows it in sorrow and only because we agreed to be proved.
We’re all here on earth to be tested by God, the same way that He tested Adam & Eve in the Garden of Eden, and the angels in Heaven, before them. He doesn’t want us to obey Him out of fear of retribution or punishment. He also doesn’t want us to obey Him just to earn special rewards that only He can give to us. That’s a sure sign of the kind of selfishness and pride that caused Lucifer to fall from God’s grace. He only wants us to obey Him out of pure love for Him, because He is Love, and the source of all Goodness. He wants us to choose to love everyone around us, and never to hate anyone.

One thing that I see as a common thread between all of the LDS posters, is that they seem to think that if God created us from nothing, then He must be responsible for all the evil that we choose to do, and would be to blame for all of the evil in this world. The one factor that they seem to ignore in the whole equation, besides our own free will to choose, is the negative influence of the devil. They forget that he also has great influence over us, as long as we’re living in this world. It’s him that’s responsible for tempting us to make evil choices, instead of good ones, the same way he tempted Adam & Eve. He’s the only one responsible for all of the evil and corruption in this world, not God. He’s the one that tempted Adam & Eve to open the door to evil by eating from the tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil. He knew that if they did, he and his horde of fallen angels (demons) would be set free, to spread corruption throughout the whole world. That was his intent.

LDS don’t seem to think he has any influence over them, at all. That’s exactly what he wants us all to believe. Just because you think you’re somehow “chosen” by God, that doesn’t mean that the devil cant tempt you. In fact, the closer you are to God, the more he tempts you to sin, because he wants you to become just like him. The “war in Heaven” between good and evil, is still raging here on earth. It will continue until the Second Coming, when Jesus will judge the living and the dead. Then, Satan and all of his followers (including the souls that are damned) will be bound in hell, forever. They will no longer have any influence over the New Earth. Until that happens, we’re all susceptible to his evil influence for as long as we live.
 
1voice,

Such a person, as they study the words “sons of God”, would find the following verses:

1 John 3:1 Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew him not.

2 Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is.
Romans 8:14
…those who are led by the Spirit of God … are sons of God.
Such a person would also find that nowhere does the Bible, in its text, equate or replace the words “sons of God” with the word “angels”.
Romans 8:14
…those who are led by the Spirit of God … are sons of God.
all the sons of God shouted for joy". All means “all”.
… In 1960 my Father and Mother and their 4 children left our home in Pittsburgh and went to visit our cousins across the Mason/ Dixon line in West Virginia to celebrate the Easter holiday. A wonderful time was had by all.
In 1967 my Father and Mother and their 6 children left our home in Pittsburgh and went to visit our cousins across the Mason/Dixon line in West Virginia to celebrate the Easter holiday. A wonderful time was had by all.
 
If you take the viewpoint that we were all 100% created by God, then He’s responsible for our proclivities, good or evil. Whereas if we are eternal beings, sent here to prove ourselves, then God cannot be blamed for the evil we do. He only allows it in sorrow and only because we agreed to be proved.
This is God’s viewpoint… Clear as can be:
Genesis 2:7
the LORD God formed the man from the dust of the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life, and the man became a living being.
 
1voice,

… a person, as they study the words “sons of God”, would find that nowhere does the Bible, in its text, equate or replace the words “sons of God” with the word “angels”.
Mark 12:25
When the dead rise, they will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven.
 
1voice,

Such a person, as they study would also find that nowhere does the Bible, in its text, equate or replace the words “sons of God” with the word “angels”.
An Angel does define/ equate himself with the Sons of God…
"I am a fellow servant … just like you as well as … “all” who keep the words of this book " ( They that are led by the Spirit of God … they are the sons of God)

Revelation 22: 8,9
I, John, am the one who heard and saw these things. And when I had heard and seen them, I fell down to worship at the feet of the angel who had been showing them to me.
But he said, “No, don’t worship me. I am a servant of God, just like you and your brothers the prophets, as well as all who obey what is written in this book. Worship only God!”
 
Which part of Rebecca’s post do you agree with, and why? Your agreement with her seems very vague to me. She mentioned several opposing viewpoints and asked many questions that you completely ignored. Without getting any answers to her questions, there’s no way of telling whether or not you really understand anything she said, at all. You certainly seem to take things out of context in people’s posts, the same way LDS take phrases out of context from the Bible to ‘prove’ their points.

No, He isn’t. We have free will to do whatever we please, after He creates us. God creates us to do good, so we can share His love for all eternity. We’re the ones that choose to reject God and do evil, because we’re more interested in loving ourselves, and having all the pleasures of this mortal existence, than we are with loving God. Eventually, we start to have more in common with the animals, than we do with human beings. We become more and more self-centered, instead of Christ-centered, and end up completely separating ourselves from God and humanity. The most important factor in all goodness is love. Love for God, first, then love for our fellow man. If we don’t have true love and respect for God, as well as for all of humanity (including our enemies), then we don’t have anything in common with God.

We’re all here on earth to be tested by God, the same way that He tested Adam & Eve in the Garden of Eden, and the angels in Heaven, before them. He doesn’t want us to obey Him out of fear of retribution or punishment. He also doesn’t want us to obey Him just to earn special rewards that only He can give to us. That’s a sure sign of the kind of selfishness and pride that caused Lucifer to fall from God’s grace. He only wants us to obey Him out of pure love for Him, because He is Love, and the source of all Goodness. He wants us to choose to love everyone around us, and never to hate anyone.

One thing that I see as a common thread between all of the LDS posters, is that they seem to think that if God created us from nothing, then He must be responsible for all the evil that we choose to do, and would be to blame for all of the evil in this world. The one factor that they seem to ignore in the whole equation, besides our own free will to choose, is the negative influence of the devil. They forget that he also has great influence over us, as long as we’re living in this world. It’s him that’s responsible for tempting us to make evil choices, instead of good ones, the same way he tempted Adam & Eve. He’s the only one responsible for all of the evil and corruption in this world, not God. He’s the one that tempted Adam & Eve to open the door to evil by eating from the tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil. He knew that if they did, he and his horde of fallen angels (demons) would be set free, to spread corruption throughout the whole world. That was his intent.

LDS don’t seem to think he has any influence over them, at all. That’s exactly what he wants us all to believe. Just because you think you’re somehow “chosen” by God, that doesn’t mean that the devil cant tempt you. In fact, the closer you are to God, the more he tempts you to sin, because he wants you to become just like him. The “war in Heaven” between good and evil, is still raging here on earth. It will continue until the Second Coming, when Jesus will judge the living and the dead. Then, Satan and all of his followers (including the souls that are damned) will be bound in hell, forever. They will no longer have any influence over the New Earth. Until that happens, we’re all susceptible to his evil influence for as long as we live.
Good post. A key point to remember is that evil is not created because evil is not a being. It is a defect in being, that tends towards non-existence. Why we may use the phrase “Creating evil” in a loose sense, it is a contradiction in terms if taken in a strict sence. Evil as such is anti-creation.
 
1voice,

Such a person, as they study the words “sons of God”, would find the following verses:

1 John 3:1 Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew him not.

2 Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is.
The NT texts speak of Sons of god not in the sense of being physically born, but in the sense of being adopted covenatally through regeneration in the Holy Spirit. For the Jews, covenant kinship was as real as physical kinship, so that a covenant of adoption, brotherhood, or marriage created a real family relationship between the covenanters. David’s brotherhood covenant with Jonathan is a good example of this.

One must always remember in dealing with Biblical teachings about sonship that the literal meaning of father and son is NOT defined by biological generation. That is a figurative meaning. Literal sonship means having an origin in God the Father. That is why St. Paul writes of “the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ for whom all fatherhood in heaven and earth is named.” (Eph 3:15) Since the term “fatherhood” is here defined by the Apostle as primarily referring to the procession of the Son from the Father, and that the name of this relationship is subsequently transferred to all other, the biblical doctrine is that human father hood is figurative, divine fatherhood is literal. For this reason, it is directly anti-biblical to suppose that Fatherhood as it exists among lower beings provides a standard for the “literal” meaning of “father” of “son,” which measures what literal fatherhood is in God. The classic Mormon argument about “literal” fatherhood contains blasphemy in its basic logical structure.

[Note: The KJV renders “all fatherhood” as “the whole family,” one of the worst mistranslations in that version. “Panta patreia” means “all fatherhood.” That is what the words directly denote and what the context obviously supports.]
Such a person would also find that nowhere does the Bible, in its text, equate or replace the words “sons of God” with the word “angels”.
Why would we expect it to? It is an ancient text, written for ancient people who have their own terminology and don’t need it defined for them. That creates exegetical problems for us, but we deal with those problems by rolling up our sleeves and doing historical research or by consulting those who have. We do not do it by using unclarities in the terminology of a text to impeach views that disagree with our when our own, when our own definitions also require evidential support.

Now, there is lots of external evidence of ancient Jews who understood “sons of God” in reference to angels. “The Book of Watchers” in 1 Enoch gives a lengthy account of the “Sons of God” in Gen 6 that interprets them as fallen angels. I don’t actually agree with that interpretation (I think the “sons of God” are descendants of Seth), and I don’t say that all Jews must have agreed with it. The point is that understanding the term to refer to angels was natural enough to Jewish thinking, at least by the Second Temple period. Have you better evidence to show that it means materially born spirit children, a.k.a. us?
“all the sons of God shouted for joy”. All means “all”.
Sometimes “all means ‘all’” is a good argument. (I have used it myself.) But not here, not if I understand you correctly. Do you think that “all” must encompass “for all time”? If so, you are saying that every son of god who would ever be must have been present for “all” to be used here meaningfully. But this is a wild claim. If I say “all my children love me,” does that imply I shall have no further children? If I lose “all my money,” does that mean I do not expect to have any more income in the future? The word “all” is meaningful whenever it indicates a real totality. “All that presently exist” is a real totality, and therefore “all” is a perfectly good word to indicate it with. Accordingly, since all the sons of God who had been created before the world constiture a real totality, then “all” is appropriate.

There is biblical proof that the son of God in Job cannot include all preexistent spirits of men. It comes out as a presupposition of St. Pauls argument about election in Rom 9:11-14:

(For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth;) It was said unto her, The elder shall serve the younger. As it is written, Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated. What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? God forbid.

Setting aside the controversy of what it means for God to “hate” Esau, note that St. Paul takes God’s preference of Jacob over Esau at the moment of birth “neither having done good or evil” as a proof that God’s election is not won by merit. If, however, St. Paul had believed in a pre-mortal existence where Jacob and Esau as spirit had sided with Elohim and then acted valiantly in his defense the sentence would be strictly false. It is even orse if you buy the view that different spirits exhibited different degrees of excellence in their support for God. After all, that would create a pre-birth standard of merit by which God might favor one person with blessings over another, rendering Paul arguemnt entirely unpersuasive. The existence of such a standard is precisely what Paul denies.

I note that this test does not disprove any possible theory of preexistent souls. It only disproves the specific claim that human souls performed morally significant acts in the preexistence, like siding with God or shouting for joy at his creation.
 
The NT texts speak of sons of God not in the sense of being physically born, but in the sense of being adopted covenatally through regeneration in the Holy Spirit. For the Jews, covenant kinship was as real as physical kinship, so that a covenant of adoption, brotherhood, or marriage created a real family relationship between the covenanters. David’s brotherhood covenant with Jonathan is a good example of this.
Soren1,

I agree, although I don’t use the words “regeneration in the Holy Spirit”–but it’s close enough.
One must always remember in dealing with Biblical teachings about sonship that the literal meaning of father and son is NOT defined by biological generation.
I agree that it does not necessarily mean that, but nor does it absolutely exclude that meaning. But it would be to say that God was being deceptive to say that His having taught to be addressed as “Father in Heaven” is not to be understood with a literal sense such that we can feel a personal relationship with Him, and properly feel that relationship.
That is a figurative meaning. Literal sonship means having an origin in God the Father. That is why St. Paul writes of “the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ for whom all fatherhood in heaven and earth is named.” (Eph 3:15) Since the term “fatherhood” is here defined by the Apostle as primarily referring to the procession of the Son from the Father, and that the name of this relationship is subsequently transferred to all other, the biblical doctrine is that human father hood is figurative, divine fatherhood is literal.
I am fine with the translation you showed here, and agree that it sounds more correct than what the KJV has for that verse. But the words “for whom” refers directly back to the preceding noun, which is “Lord Jesus Christ”. Jesus Christ is the “Father of heaven and earth”. Paul is reiterating this teaching, which John also supported in his writing.

So I disagree that this verse has anything to do with teaching about whether or not God the Father is the Father of spirits. Jesus Christ is the Father of heaven and earth is what it is teaching.

Paul stated in Hebrews 12:9 a simple question that is self-answered that we should “much rather be in subjection unto the Father of spirits, and live?” So the issue of whether there is a Father of spirits ought not be tossed out as non-Biblical.
For this reason, it is directly anti-biblical to suppose that Fatherhood as it exists among lower beings provides a standard for the “literal” meaning of “father” of “son,” which measures what literal fatherhood is in God. The classic Mormon argument about “literal” fatherhood contains blasphemy in its basic logical structure.
No, it is supported by Paul in Hebrews 12:9 and is simple to understand as a literal meaning. There is nothing “non-Biblical” about it.
[Note: The KJV renders “all fatherhood” as “the whole family,” one of the worst mistranslations in that version. “Panta patreia” means “all fatherhood.” That is what the words directly denote and what the context obviously supports.]
Fine.
Why would we expect it to? It is an ancient text, written for ancient people who have their own terminology and don’t need it defined for them. That creates exegetical problems for us, but we deal with those problems by rolling up our sleeves and doing historical research or by consulting those who have. We do not do it by using unclarities in the terminology of a text to impeach views that disagree with our when our own, when our own definitions also require evidential support.
Now, there is lots of external evidence of ancient Jews who understood “sons of God” in reference to angels. “The Book of Watchers” in 1 Enoch gives a lengthy account of the “Sons of God” in Gen 6 that interprets them as fallen angels. I don’t actually agree with that interpretation (I think the “sons of God” are descendants of Seth)
I agree with you, and disagree with any notion that Genesis 6:2 was talking about angels.
, and I don’t say that all Jews must have agreed with it. The point is that understanding the term to refer to angels was natural enough to Jewish thinking, at least by the Second Temple period. Have you better evidence to show that it means materially born spirit children, a.k.a. us?
Neither I nor Latter-day Saint doctrine speaks about “materially born spirit children” in the normal sense those words would convey. Spirit being “pure matter” can just as easily mean “pure energy” since matter and energy are interchangeable in physics. “Born” does not mean a physical birth of spirits, at all.
Sometimes “all means ‘all’” is a good argument. (I have used it myself.) But not here, not if I understand you correctly. Do you think that “all” must encompass “for all time”?
If one believes that God is truly omniscient including seeing into the future of time on earth, then those “all the sons of God” can encompass “for all time” meaning those who “shouted for joy” were there because they were known to be able to be trusted when they would come to earth, to become “adopted into the covenant” as your first paragraph noted that sons of God become.
If so, you are saying that every son of god who would ever be must have been present for “all” to be used here meaningfully. But this is a wild claim.
Not if one believes God is truly omniscient. But if they don’t, deep-down in their inner thinking, then I suppose it would be viewed as a “wild claim”.

(to be continued)
 
(Continuation to Soren1):
If I say “all my children love me,” does that imply I shall have no further children? If I lose “all my money,” does that mean I do not expect to have any more income in the future?
Again, if time is viewed as a mortal element that God does not have to live by (i.e. He sees into the future and all things in the future are present with Him in the present), then those questions aren’t pertinent to God’s view of humankind and human history and time.
The word “all” is meaningful whenever it indicates a real totality. “All that presently exist” is a real totality, and therefore “all” is a perfectly good word to indicate it with. Accordingly, since all the sons of God who had been created before the world constiture a real totality, then “all” is appropriate.
I agree.

I’ll look at the rest of your post when I have time and can spend the time to respond to that part of what you presented. Thanks, and peace to you and all readers.
 

There is biblical proof that the son of God in Job cannot include all preexistent spirits of men. It comes out as a presupposition of St. Pauls argument about election in Rom 9:11-14:

(For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth;) It was said unto her, The elder shall serve the younger. As it is written, Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated. What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? God forbid.

Setting aside the controversy of what it means for God to “hate” Esau, note that St. Paul takes God’s preference of Jacob over Esau at the moment of birth “neither having done good or evil” as a proof that God’s election is not won by merit. If, however, St. Paul had believed in a pre-mortal existence where Jacob and Esau as spirits had sided with Elohim and then acted valiantly in his defense the sentence would be strictly false. It is even worse if you buy the view that different spirits exhibited different degrees of excellence in their support for God. After all, that would create a pre-birth standard of merit by which God might favor one person with blessings over another, rendering Paul arguemnt entirely unpersuasive. The existence of such a standard is precisely what Paul denies.

I note that this test does not disprove any possible theory of preexistent souls. It only disproves the specific claim that human souls performed morally significant acts in the preexistence, like siding with God or shouting for joy at his creation.
Soren1,

I suggest that anyone reading your conclusion here, go ahead and also read beginning with Romans 8:28 and all the way through Romans 9 and Romans 10 and all the way through to Romans 11:32. Then, also, a really thorough and diligent student might do well to read (for the sake of understanding Paul’s analogy in Romans 11 about the olive tree, with which readers of the Book of Mormon who have studied it diligently are completely familiar through writings that came from a prophet of the Old World from among the Jews, now given to the world through Jacob chapter 5) Jacob 5 to understand the olive tree analogy thoroughly.

Romans 8:28 talks of being “called according to his purposes”. Verse 29 talks about Christ being the “firstborn among many brethren.” This is not talking about Christ’s immediate family who were children of Mary. It is talking about “many brethren” as a very large multitude of people.

One should read and study Romans 11:16-17 and 31-32 in order to understand the entire doctrine that Paul was referring to in these chapters. The descendants of Esau would be counted among the “Gentiles”, and the descendants of Jacob are of course counted among the house of Israel–and Paul says they all obtain mercy, and that the righteous of the house of Israel whose hearts were not hardened and therefore who believed in Christ and stumbled not (see Romans 9:32-33) are among the “called”, and these “called” share the gospel and bring about the meaning through the atoning grace of Jesus Christ, of

“he might have mercy upon all”.

So if a person has studied all the above, then it comes as no surprise that God could have plans for the descendants of Esau and plans for the descendants of Jacob, and they all fit within His plan of salvation. The scattering and gathering of the house of Israel then makes complete sense as part of the fulfillment of Heavenly Father’s plan of salvation, not for the Jews only or for the Gentiles only, but for all.

Paul did not “deny” pre-existence in those chapters. The words “among many brethren” and “firstborn” indeed point directly toward the pre-existence of “many brethren”. The Jacob and Esau comparison make it clear that God had a plan, in the pre-existence, that encompassed Jacob and his descendants as well as Esau and his descendants, and that is all for the good, because “mercy” will come “upon all”.
 
Sometimes “all means ‘all’” is a good argument. (I have used it myself.) But not here, not if I understand you correctly. Do you think that “all” must encompass “for all time”?
Soren1,

If one believes that God is truly omniscient including seeing into the future of time on earth, then those “all the sons of God” can encompass “for all time” meaning those who “shouted for joy” were there because they were known to be able to be trusted when they would come to earth, to become “adopted into the covenant” as your first paragraph noted that sons of God become.
Parker,
You have created a false 'if/then statement.
The fact that God is omniscient does not prove your assumption with regard to the word ‘all’. You have created an interesting story… but it is not supported by the text.
Taking one word in one context and then using it to extrapolate into a context that fits your paradigm, just because it seems to make perfect sense, is not good logic and not good exegesis.

And, in fact, an Angel disputes your previous claim made in post #724…
An Angel does define/ equate himself with the Sons of God…
"I am a fellow servant … just like you as well as … “all” who keep the words of this book " ( They that are led by the Spirit of God … they are the sons of God … Romans 8:14)

Revelation 22: 8,9
I, John, am the one who heard and saw these things. And when I had heard and seen them, I fell down to worship at the feet of the angel who had been showing them to me.
But he said, “No, don’t worship me. I am a servant of God, just like you and your brothers the prophets, as well as all who obey what is written in this book. Worship only God!”
 
Sometimes “all means ‘all’” is a good argument. (I have used it myself.) But not here, not if I understand you correctly. Do you think that “all” must encompass “for all time”?

Parker,
You have created a false 'if/then statement.
The fact that God is omniscient does not prove your assumption with regard to the word ‘all’. You have created an interesting story… but it is not supported by the text.
Taking one word in one context and then using it to extrapolate into a context that fits your paradigm, just because it seems to make perfect sense, is not good logic and not good exegesis.

And, in fact, an Angel disputes your previous claim made in post #724…
An Angel does define/ equate himself with the Sons of God…
"I am a fellow servant … just like you as well as … “all” who keep the words of this book " ( They that are led by the Spirit of God … they are the sons of God … Romans 8:14)

Revelation 22: 8,9
I, John, am the one who heard and saw these things. And when I had heard and seen them, I fell down to worship at the feet of the angel who had been showing them to me.
But he said, “No, don’t worship me. I am a servant of God, just like you and your brothers the prophets, as well as all who obey what is written in this book. Worship only God!”
1voice,

No, I haven’t created a false if/then statement.

No, the angel described in Revelation 22:7-9 didn’t refute the idea of “sons of God” being there when they “shouted for joy”.

Here is an analysis using Greek and English, of Revelation 22:7-9 and its transliteration leading to an understanding of how the words should have been translated to get the correct meaning:

The angel will not be worshipped.
9 2532 [e]
9 kai
9 καὶ
9 And
9 Conj
3004 [e]
legei
λέγει
he says
V-PIA-3S
1473 [e]
moi
μοι ,
to me
PPro-D1S
3708 [e]
Hora
Ὅρα
See [thou do it]
V-PMA-2S
3361 [e]

μή :
not
Adv
4889 [e]
syndoulos
σύνδουλός
fellow bondman
N-NMS
4771 [e]
sou
σού
of you
PPro-G2S
1510 [e]
eimi
εἰμι ,
I am
V-PI-1S
2532 [e]
kai
καὶ
and
Conj
3588 [e]
tōn
τῶν
of the
Art-GMP
80 [e]
adelphōn
ἀδελφῶν
brothers
N-GMP
4771 [e]
sou
σου ,
of you
PPro-G2S
3588 [e]
tōn
τῶν
the
Art-GMP
4396 [e]
prophētōn
προφητῶν ,
prophets
N-GMP
2532 [e]
kai
καὶ
and
Conj
3588 [e]
tōn
τῶν
of those who
Art-GMP
5083 [e]
tērountōn
τηρούντων
keep
V-PPA-GMP
3588 [e]
tous
τοὺς
the
Art-AMP
3056 [e]
logous
λόγους
words
N-AMP
3588 [e]
tou
τοῦ
of the
Art-GNS
975 [e]
bibliou
βιβλίου
book
N-GNS
3778 [e]
toutou
τούτου .
this
DPro-GNS
3588 [e]

τῷ

Art-DMS
2316 [e]
theō
θεῷ
God
N-DMS
4352 [e]
proskynēson
προσκύνησον !worship
 
1voice,

No, I haven’t created a false if/then statement.

No, the angel described in Revelation 22:7-9 didn’t refute the idea of “sons of God” being there when they “shouted for joy”.

Here is an analysis using Greek and English, of Revelation 22:7-9 and its transliteration leading to an understanding of how the words should have been translated to get the correct meaning:

The angel will not be worshipped.
9 2532 [e]
9 kai
9 καὶ
9 And
9 Conj
3004 [e]
legei
λέγει
he says
V-PIA-3S
1473 [e]
moi
μοι ,
to me
PPro-D1S
3708 [e]
Hora
Ὅρα
See [thou do it]
V-PMA-2S
3361 [e]

μή :
not
Adv
4889 [e]
syndoulos
σύνδουλός
fellow bondman
N-NMS
4771 [e]
sou
σού
of you
PPro-G2S
1510 [e]
eimi
εἰμι ,
I am
V-PI-1S
2532 [e]
kai
καὶ
and
Conj
3588 [e]
tōn
τῶν
of the
Art-GMP
80 [e]
adelphōn
ἀδελφῶν
brothers
N-GMP
4771 [e]
sou
σου ,
of you
PPro-G2S
3588 [e]
tōn
τῶν
the
Art-GMP
4396 [e]
prophētōn
προφητῶν ,
prophets
N-GMP
2532 [e]
kai
καὶ
and
Conj
3588 [e]
tōn
τῶν
of those who
Art-GMP
5083 [e]
tērountōn
τηρούντων
keep
V-PPA-GMP
3588 [e]
tous
τοὺς
the
Art-AMP
3056 [e]
logous
λόγους
words
N-AMP
3588 [e]
tou
τοῦ
of the
Art-GNS
975 [e]
bibliou
βιβλίου
book
N-GNS
3778 [e]
toutou
τούτου .
this
DPro-GNS
3588 [e]

τῷ

Art-DMS
2316 [e]
theō
θεῷ
God
N-DMS
4352 [e]
proskynēson
προσκύνησον !worship
The Angel gave specific reasons why he should not be worshipped. He specifically defined himself as “a fellow bondman of you (John) and of the brothers of you (John) … and those that keep the words of this book (the Bible)”

The Spirit of God inspired the words of “this book” (the Bible)

Romans 8:14 defines a Son of God:
Those that are led by the Spirit of God … they are the Sons of God.

Psalm 138:2 states that:
God has magnified his word above all thy name.

The Angel clearly states that he is led by the Spirit of God because he keeps God’s word.
 
1voice,

No, I haven’t created a false if/then statement.

No, the angel described in Revelation 22:7-9 didn’t refute the idea of “sons of God” being there when they “shouted for joy”.

Here is an analysis using Greek and English, of Revelation 22:7-9 and its transliteration leading to an understanding of how the words should have been translated to get the correct meaning:

The angel will not be worshipped.
9 2532 [e]
9 kai
9 καὶ
9 And
9 Conj
3004 [e]
legei
λέγει
he says
V-PIA-3S
1473 [e]
moi
μοι ,
to me
PPro-D1S
3708 [e]
Hora
Ὅρα
See [thou do it]
V-PMA-2S
3361 [e]

μή :
not
Adv
4889 [e]
syndoulos
σύνδουλός
fellow bondman
N-NMS
4771 [e]
sou
σού
of you
PPro-G2S
1510 [e]
eimi
εἰμι ,
I am
V-PI-1S
2532 [e]
kai
καὶ
and
Conj
3588 [e]
tōn
τῶν
of the
Art-GMP
80 [e]
adelphōn
ἀδελφῶν
brothers
N-GMP
4771 [e]
sou
σου ,
of you
PPro-G2S
3588 [e]
tōn
τῶν
the
Art-GMP
4396 [e]
prophētōn
προφητῶν ,
prophets
N-GMP
2532 [e]
kai
καὶ
and
Conj
3588 [e]
tōn
τῶν
of those who
Art-GMP
5083 [e]
tērountōn
τηρούντων
keep
V-PPA-GMP
3588 [e]
tous
τοὺς
the
Art-AMP
3056 [e]
logous
λόγους
words
N-AMP
3588 [e]
tou
τοῦ
of the
Art-GNS
975 [e]
bibliou
βιβλίου
book
N-GNS
3778 [e]
toutou
τούτου .
this
DPro-GNS
3588 [e]

τῷ

Art-DMS
2316 [e]
theō
θεῷ
God
N-DMS
4352 [e]
proskynēson
προσκύνησον !worship
How does any of the above prove beyond question that an Angel cannot be called a Son of God?
 
Soren1,

I suggest that anyone reading your conclusion here, go ahead and also read beginning with Romans 8:28 and all the way through Romans 9 and Romans 10 and all the way through to Romans 11:32. Then, also, a really thorough and diligent student might do well to read (for the sake of understanding Paul’s analogy in Romans 11 about the olive tree, with which readers of the Book of Mormon who have studied it diligently are completely familiar through writings that came from a prophet of the Old World from among the Jews, now given to the world through Jacob chapter 5) Jacob 5 to understand the olive tree analogy thoroughly.

Romans 8:28 talks of being “called according to his purposes”. Verse 29 talks about Christ being the “firstborn among many brethren.” This is not talking about Christ’s immediate family who were children of Mary. It is talking about “many brethren” as a very large multitude of people.

One should read and study Romans 11:16-17 and 31-32 in order to understand the entire doctrine that Paul was referring to in these chapters. The descendants of Esau would be counted among the “Gentiles”, and the descendants of Jacob are of course counted among the house of Israel–and Paul says they all obtain mercy, and that the righteous of the house of Israel whose hearts were not hardened and therefore who believed in Christ and stumbled not (see Romans 9:32-33) are among the “called”, and these “called” share the gospel and bring about the meaning through the atoning grace of Jesus Christ, of

“he might have mercy upon all”.

So if a person has studied all the above, then it comes as no surprise that God could have plans for the descendants of Esau and plans for the descendants of Jacob, and they all fit within His plan of salvation. The scattering and gathering of the house of Israel then makes complete sense as part of the fulfillment of Heavenly Father’s plan of salvation, not for the Jews only or for the Gentiles only, but for all.

Paul did not “deny” pre-existence in those chapters. The words “among many brethren” and “firstborn” indeed point directly toward the pre-existence of “many brethren”. The Jacob and Esau comparison make it clear that God had a plan, in the pre-existence, that encompassed Jacob and his descendants as well as Esau and his descendants, and that is all for the good, because “mercy” will come “upon all”.
Having plans for people before they are born does not, in any way, suggest a pre-existence. I had plans for my children before they were born. Does that mean I had them in some pre-existence? No. It means I had plans for them.

To somehow make all of that into some world where we all existed prior is to misrepresent God’s Word.
 
I suggest that anyone reading your conclusion here, go ahead and also read beginning with Romans 8:28 and all the way through Romans 9 and Romans 10 and all the way through to Romans 11:32. Then, also, a really thorough and diligent student might do well to read (for the sake of understanding Paul’s analogy in Romans 11 about the olive tree, with which readers of the Book of Mormon who have studied it diligently are completely familiar through writings that came from a prophet of the Old World from among the Jews, now given to the world through Jacob chapter 5) Jacob 5 to understand the olive tree analogy thoroughly.
Parker,

I did as you suggested. I reread Romans 8 to 11, so I could better understand your interpretation. It’s always a pleasure to read Paul’s writings because he has such a deep understanding of the teachings of Jesus, because of his knowledge of the OT Scriptures, as well as Jewish Law and its history, and how they both relate to what Jesus taught. Being a very highly educated and faithful Jew, he had a wonderful insight into Jewish understanding and traditions.

Then, I also read the 5th chapter of Jacob in the BoM, per your request, just to see what you were referring to about the parable of the olive tree. No offense, but that chapter was very difficult for me to read, in more ways than one, but it certainly did make the LDS interpretation of that parable (a la Joseph Smith) much more clear to me. I wish I could say that I was happy to learn about it, but as you can probably imagine, I was not. Was I really surprised by what I read? Nope, not at all. That whole chapter could have probably been shortened by at least half, and the intended meaning would still be just as clear (although some of it still made no sense to me, whatsoever… particularly the part where the vineyard owner said he burned up all the ‘withered branches’, but a few paragraphs later said he replanted them in ‘hidden spots’ :hmmm:). Joseph certainly could have left out all of the unnecessary repetitions, that just made it more tedious to read.
Romans 8:28 talks of being “called according to his purposes”. Verse 29 talks about Christ being the “firstborn among many brethren.” This is not talking about Christ’s immediate family who were children of Mary. It is talking about “many brethren” as a very large multitude of people.
Verse 28 refers to all those that are called to love and follow Jesus, and do whatever God inspires them to do, to fulfill their obligations as Christians. However, “Many are called, but few are chosen” to be true Saints. Most of us will barely make it by the skin of our teeth, and unfortunately, many others will fall by the wayside and give up before reaching the goal.

Verse 29 is a reference to Jesus being the Head of the Church, the “firstborn” of all Christians that will be saved by His death and resurrection. We all become His “brethren”, and the adopted children of God, when we’re Baptized into His Church.
One should read and study Romans 11:16-17 and 31-32 in order to understand the entire doctrine that Paul was referring to in these chapters. The descendants of Esau would be counted among the “Gentiles”, and the descendants of Jacob are of course counted among the house of Israel–and Paul says they all obtain mercy, and that the righteous of the house of Israel whose hearts were not hardened and therefore who believed in Christ and stumbled not (see Romans 9:32-33) are among the “called”, and these “called” share the gospel and bring about the meaning through the atoning grace of Jesus Christ, of

“he might have mercy upon all”.
He “might” have mercy upon all, is not necessarily a guarantee that He will. We still have to do our own part, in order to receive His gift of Mercy. Our own actions are a huge factor in our salvation. If we live our entire life full of sin, without having any true sorrow or repentance for them, then we will throw away our only chance at salvation that God freely offers to us. It really doesn’t matter whether we’re Jews or Gentiles.
So if a person has studied all the above, then it comes as no surprise that God could have plans for the descendants of Esau and plans for the descendants of Jacob, and they all fit within His plan of salvation. The scattering and gathering of the house of Israel then makes complete sense as part of the fulfillment of Heavenly Father’s plan of salvation, not for the Jews only or for the Gentiles only, but for all.
I have studied the above, but I’m not so sure about your concept of the “gathering of the House of Israel”. If you’re referring to the establishment of the nation of Israel, as its own country, having something to do with the fulfillment of God’s plan of salvation, then I think you’re a little off base, there. I think when God uses the term “gathering”, He’s referring to the Jews being converted, and accepting Jesus as the true Messiah, in the end. He will gather them all into His Holy Church, where they will finally find their salvation.
Paul did not “deny” pre-existence in those chapters. The words “among many brethren” and “firstborn” indeed point directly toward the pre-existence of “many brethren”. The Jacob and Esau comparison make it clear that God had a plan, in the pre-existence, that encompassed Jacob and his descendants as well as Esau and his descendants, and that is all for the good, because “mercy” will come “upon all”.
No, I think you’re reading something into it that isn’t there. Those phrases taken out of context might be interpreted that way, but in the proper context of Paul’s teaching, they clearly refer to Jesus and His faithful followers, that remain true to His Church and His teachings, until the end.
 
Quote:
Originally Posted by rmcmullan
Thank you, I agree! But that’s what I seem to be hearing. And that’s my entire point. If you take the viewpoint that we were all 100% created by God, then He’s responsible for our proclivities, good or evil. Whereas if we are eternal beings, sent here to prove ourselves, then God cannot be blamed for the evil we do. He only allows it in sorrow and only because we agreed to be proved.
God is responsible for us being good or evil? Serious? Then we are nothing but puppets to God to toy with us. :ehh:
 
Thank you, I agree! But that’s what I seem to be hearing. And that’s my entire point. If you take the viewpoint that we were all 100% created by God, then He’s responsible for our proclivities, good or evil. Whereas if we are eternal beings, sent here to prove ourselves, then God cannot be blamed for the evil we do. He only allows it in sorrow and only because we agreed to be proved.
Are you stating that God cannot create a human being (with no pre mortal existence) that is a free moral agent?
 
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