scripture and homosexuality

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changing words does not change the essence of what youare talking about.

ban…regulation…law …tabboo…they all mena the same. and they violating them…like doing household chores on the sabbath…was sin under the old covenant. but under the new covenant to do not have the same relationship to the written code.
 
my apologies…reedit

changing words does not change the essence of what you are talking about.

ban…regulation…law …taboo…they all meanj the same. and violating them…like doing household chores on the sabbath…was sin under the old covenant. but under the new covenant we do not have the same relationship to the written code. because we are no longer led by the wriitten code but instead the spirit. the law now is to make us conscious of loving our neighbor as ourself, the summation of all the law.; the fulfillment of it being love.
 
feetxxxl said:
my apologies…reedit

changing words does not change the essence of what youare talking about.

ban…regulation…law …taboo…they all meanj the same. and violating them…like doing household chores on the sabbath…was sin under the old covenant. but under the new covenant we do not have the same relationship to the written code. because we are no longer led by the wriitten code but instead the spirit. the law to make us conscious of loving our neighbor as ourself, the summation of all the law.; the fulfillment of it being love.
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Where did Jesus state moral laws were not in effect any longer? I know Jewish dietary and ceremonial laws are out, but where did moral laws go?

Didn’t Christ state He did not come to destroy the Law?
 
feetxxxl said:
everything i have written. is in romans 3,7,13
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These chapters do nothing for your argument. St. Paul maintains that all commandments derive from “love thy neighbor as thyself.” He then explains that we should not disobey the law of faith, which is the law of God. St. Paul refers to circumcision, and that it is no longer required. Circumcision is indeed a ceremonial law, not a moral law. Nowhere in these chapters does St. Paul refer to the abolishment of moral law.
 
Guys I wouldn’t worry about it too much. This gentlemen just keeps giving the same response and never gives any backing for his interpretation. And feetxxxl just in case you are wondering by what I mean as backing…I still am asking for you to cite anyone before lets say the twentieth century to support your claim. Until you do, your argument has no credence. It is simply your opinion.
 
donmaximuso27 said:
These chapters do nothing for your argument. St. Paul maintains that all commandments derive from “love thy neighbor as thyself.” He then explains that we should not disobey the law of faith, which is the law of God. St. Paul refers to circumcision, and that it is no longer required. Circumcision is indeed a ceremonial law, not a moral law. Nowhere in these chapters does St. Paul refer to the abolishment of moral law.
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please annotate.

ephesians 2:8-9 we are saved by grace thru faith

but in regards to obedience, 1cor 13 says anything without love is nothing and gains nothing. ]

what could be more moral than the three commandments of love.`
 
feetxxxl said:
please annotate.

ephesians 2:8-9 we are saved by grace thru faith

but in regards to obedience, 1cor 13 says anything without love is nothing and gains nothing. ]

what could be more moral than the three commandments of love.`
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I would continue on a deeper discussion on love and God’s definition of love. However, it would be redundant seeing how you were unable to respond to the millions of other posts on the definition and nature of love.
 
Bwsherman said:
Guys I wouldn’t worry about it too much. This gentlemen just keeps giving the same response and never gives any backing for his interpretation. And feetxxxl just in case you are wondering by what I mean as backing…I still am asking for you to cite anyone before lets say the twentieth century to support your claim. Until you do, your argument has no credence. It is simply your opinion.
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everything i have written is straight out of scripture. can you make the same claim.

it appears that the holy spirit hid the secrets of the new covenant in a book of scripture that for 2000 years was considered to be about homosexual sin. nothing could be farther from the truth.
 
feetxxxl said:
everything i have written is straight out of scripture. can you make the same claim.

it appears that the holy spirit hid the secrets of the new covenant in a book of scripture that for 2000 years was considered to be about homosexual sin. nothing could be farther from the truth.
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And what about the white suprimist that use scripture to justify their position or the people that followed David Koresh. My point being is that one can make scripture say whatever is convenient for them. It is still only your opinion.
 
…No need for discussion on this topic.
The Church has spoken, Christ speaks through her
end of story 🤷
 
CreosMary said:
…No need for discussion on this topic.
The Church has spoken, Christ speaks through her
end of story 🤷
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we are the church!

do you think that the anointing given the leaders, trumps their faith relationship in christ…“not by works, so that no man can boast.” does the christ living inside believers account for nothing.?

1john if he is not living in us we are not part of him.
 
donmaximuso27 said:
These chapters do nothing for your argument. St. Paul maintains that all commandments derive from “love thy neighbor as thyself.” He then explains that we should not disobey the law of faith, which is the law of God. St. Paul refers to circumcision, and that it is no longer required. Circumcision is indeed a ceremonial law, not a moral law. Nowhere in these chapters does St. Paul refer to the abolishment of moral law.
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This keeps poping up, the argument of ceremonial law and moral law.

But what exactly are ceremonial law and moral law?

Where does the bible seperate the two and give us a clear indication of what falls under what?

From what I have been able to find out, it seems as though moral law is the 10 commandments and ceremonial law is the mosiac law.
 
Elric said:
This keeps poping up, the argument of ceremonial law and moral law.

But what exactly are ceremonial law and moral law?

Where does the bible seperate the two and give us a clear indication of what falls under what?

From what I have been able to find out, it seems as though moral law is the 10 commandments and ceremonial law is the mosiac law.
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St. Thomas Aquinas clearly explained that law was divided into moral law, ceremonial law, and judicial law. Moral law still exists in the New Covenant because of the clear NT passages that show the commandments still hold. Also, moral law was from the beginning, deriving from the law of nature. Therefore, as long as nature, or creation, exists, it is binded to moral law. The Catechism teaches:

“2068 The Council of Trent teaches that the Ten Commandments are obligatory for Christians and that the justified man is still bound to keep them; the Second Vatican Council confirms: 'The bishops, successors of the apostles, receive from the Lord … the mission of teaching all peoples, and of preaching the Gospel to every creature, so that all men may attain salvation through faith, Baptism and the observance of the Commandments.”
  1. "The Ten Commandments belong to God’s revelation. At the same time they teach us the true humanity of man. They bring to light the essential duties, and therefore, indirectly, the fundamental rights inherent in the nature of the human person. The Decalogue contains a privileged expression of the natural law: “From the beginning, God had implanted in the heart of man the precepts of the natural law. Then he was content to remind him of them. This was the Decalogue” (St. Irenaeus, Adv. haeres. 4, 15, 1: PG 7/1, 1012).
  2. “Since they express man’s fundamental duties towards God and towards his neighbour, the Ten Commandments reveal, in their primordial content, grave obligations. They are fundamentally immutable, and they oblige always and everywhere. No one can dispense from them. The Ten Commandments are engraved by God in the human heart.”
 
donmaximuso27 said:
St. Thomas Aquinas clearly explained that law was divided into moral law, ceremonial law, and judicial law. Moral law still exists in the New Covenant because of the clear NT passages that show the commandments still hold. Also, moral law was from the beginning, deriving from the law of nature. Therefore, as long as nature, or creation, exists, it is binded to moral law. The Catechism teaches:

“2068 The Council of Trent teaches that the Ten Commandments are obligatory for Christians and that the justified man is still bound to keep them; the Second Vatican Council confirms: 'The bishops, successors of the apostles, receive from the Lord … the mission of teaching all peoples, and of preaching the Gospel to every creature, so that all men may attain salvation through faith, Baptism and the observance of the Commandments.”
  1. "The Ten Commandments belong to God’s revelation. At the same time they teach us the true humanity of man. They bring to light the essential duties, and therefore, indirectly, the fundamental rights inherent in the nature of the human person. The Decalogue contains a privileged expression of the natural law: “From the beginning, God had implanted in the heart of man the precepts of the natural law. Then he was content to remind him of them. This was the Decalogue” (St. Irenaeus, Adv. haeres. 4, 15, 1: PG 7/1, 1012).
  2. “Since they express man’s fundamental duties towards God and towards his neighbour, the Ten Commandments reveal, in their primordial content, grave obligations. They are fundamentally immutable, and they oblige always and everywhere. No one can dispense from them. The Ten Commandments are engraved by God in the human heart.”
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That doesnt answer anything that I asked.
 
YAWN

278 or so posts later…maybe this will get interesting? I think not.

Challenge: Show me where homosexuality is prohibited in scripture.

Answered: Many times over.

Challenge: That’s not what it means.

Answered: Yes it does.

Challenge: No it doesn’t. My questions haven’t been answered.

Answered: Yes they have. What about my questions.

Challenge: Been answered see post (fill in the blank here)

Repeat ad nauseum.

About the only interesting thing I find in this thread is Feet’s use of “god” and “christ” instead of “God” and “Christ”. 🤷

That and what does this thread have to do with Non-Catholic religions? :confused:

:yawn:
 
donmaximuso27 said:
Ok, what do you need clarified?
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This keeps poping up, the argument of ceremonial law and moral law.

But what exactly are ceremonial law and moral law?

Where does the bible seperate the two and give us a clear indication of what falls under what?

From what I have been able to find out, it seems as though moral law is the 10 commandments and ceremonial law is the mosiac law.
 
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