Up front, I am not saying homosexual sex is ok.
Just for thought, over on anther thread that was discussing permissible sex, heterosexual anal sex was being discussed as a possibility as foreplay for example. People over there are saying, well in essence “well, its not for me, but whatever floats your boat so long as the act follows and ejaculation is inside the woman in the right place!”.
So in general, people think its permissible for a man to do something un-natural to a woman, but for two men to do it is abhorrent.
Same for oral sex. Over on that thread it is ok as foreplay.
Using the idea of Natural Law which is often quoted as the basis for the churchs teachings, a man and women engaging in anal intercourse, or oral intercourse seems to be contrary to natural law. The Mouth is made to allow food, water and air to enter the body. The Anus allows waste products to exit the body.
Any other use is contrary to that natural law.
It would be great to see some consistency from fellow Catholics. If something is condemned on the basis of natural law, the surely it applies to all. If the argument goes that the end of the digestive tract is only for expelling waste, then this applies to everyone!
I guess the clear message here is, sexual acts are only permissible between a married man and woman, and as long as each complete act is open to life. Anything outside this is SIN. PERIOD.
A homosexual couple engaging in sexual acts is no more or less sinful than an unmarried heterosexual couple engaging in sexual acts, or a married heterosexual couple engaging in sexual acts that are not open to life (other than NFP).
Again, this it NOT an argument for homosexual acts to be permissible. Just seeking clarity and consistency.
the only problem with this line of thinking, is that again the concept of sin is focused on the act, and not of the spirit of the act. a couple practices anal sex. because it is mutually pleasing to both people , because it is mutally pleasing it is an act that affirms and expresses the devotion in the relationship.
how can anyone find it pleasing? because the anus is an erogenous zone(wikipedia) and anal orgasms are not only possible but with some people are much more intense than vaginal orgasms. then there is also digital massage, that accompaning vaginal sex can also produce the same result.
so because of this law, what are the rules about touching someone around the anal area. are you saying as long as there is no penetration there is no sin. how about massaging the area around so as to make one want penetration.
the same thing is also true about oral sex as well. so you are saying that if one uses his mouth to touch the genitals of another even if it is pleasing to both parties out of a technicality they are sinning. what spirit are they given over to that comes against loving ones neighbor as oneself. it would seem that if one party desired it, not to do it, would be unloving. paul didnt say dont withhold your genitals from each other. he said dont withhold your bodies.
1cor7:4The wife’s body does not belong to her alone but also to her husband. In the same way, the husband’s body does not belong to him alone but also to his wife. 5Do not deprive each other except by mutual consent
doesnt this dialogue have a similarity to the old covenant and the 600 some odd laws the jews tried to obey.
Romans 4:13
It was not through law that Abraham and his offspring received the promise that he would be heir of the world, but through the righteousness that comes by faith.
Romans 9:30-32
30What then shall we say? That the Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have obtained it, a righteousness that is by faith; 31but Israel, who pursued a law of righteousness, has not attained it. 32Why not? Because they pursued it not by faith but as if it were by works. They stumbled over the “stumbling stone.”
but you appear to go even further. you attempt to disinfranchise those who live by faith, because they wont submit to your laws. your arguement is similar to the jews who believed they were saved because they were of the 12 tribes. you bellieve your “natural law” construct is valid because it comes thru a church that has lineage to peter.
where is the spirit of christ in that?
dont you find it peculiar that these laws were made those the celibate? surely you dont think they were more holy. because our holiness does not come from anything that we do(works)…but only thru grace thru faith thru the one who lives in us.
where in scripture is there any referral to this" natural law" or this code about masterbation and anal and oral sex?