Well, Lysimachus (can I call you ‘Ly’ for short?),
You suffer from a fundamental perceptual handicap, and I mean this in all Christian charity, but you accuse us Catholics of the same reasoning you use to justify your wild hair beliefs.
EXAMPLE: Who told you that what Isaiah means by “law” and “testimony” is the Bible? (OT and NT)
NOT THE BIBLE.
Can you give a better explanation? This is clearly the only interpretation. Virtually every Christian will recognize that the Old Testament was a book of “laws”—both moral and ceremonial, which included the 10 Commandments and the Mosaic Laws. A famous question that arises toward many Sabbath keepers is: Do you keep the Old Testament, or New Testament, and most individuals from Protestant Denominations are always sure to point out to you that if we are keeping the Old Testament, we’re still “bound by laws that were nailed to the cross”.
The prophet Isaiah prophecied of the coming of the Messiah, and spoke of many great things that were to come in the last days. Any Bible student that thoroughly studies will recognize this.
But assuming we arn’t allowed to bank on Isaiah 8:20, let’s continue further…
EXAMPLE: Where does it say in the Bible that God gives it as a tool for every individual? Heck, where in the Bible does it say the Bible is the ‘How to be a Christian Book’???
IT DOESN"T.
2 Tim. 3:16, 17 — *"**All scripture **[is] given by inspiration of God, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the
man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works." *
These 2 verses are so plain, it is impossible for anyone to get around it. And I know
Rbt that you are mature enough to not quible over my use of the word “tool”. You know very well what I mean.
EXAMPLE: If the Bible is your “measuring rod,” then why do you and all the other ‘bible thumpers’ disagree on what specific passages mean? Who is the infallible speaker on Scripture here, Ly?
If we had no scripture, where would we be at as far as Christianity is concerned? The answer is very simple. NO WHERE! There would be no Christian world period. All Christian belief is based off of the inspired writ of the testimonies. This is how we use it as our “measuring rod”—we use it to define and point out sin (Romans 3:20). Without it, we would have not known of Christ, God, creation, His miracles, or any commandments!
John 3:39 --"
Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify (the testimonies–both Old AND New) of me."
Without the scriptures, knowledge of eternal life would be found no where. Without them, we would have nothing to testify of Christ. So if the whole Bible testifies of Christ, we better figure out what the “Word of God” means. Jesus is the
“Word of God” —the whole Bible testifies of Christ. That’s why Jesus is called the “Word of God”: *“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the
Word was God.” *~ John 1:1,
“And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called "The Word of God.” ~ Rev. 19:13. So Jesus is the Word of God–the Bible. Jesus is God’s thought made Audible.
So if the scriptures are what “testify of Christ”, then we have no choice but to use the Bible as our measuring rod to recieve “instruction”, “reproof”, “correction” and “instruction”. (2 Tim 3:16,17)
God’s true church will reflect the “Word of God”, but if they do not, then how can we take the “Word of the Church” above the “Word of God”? Obviously, they must not be God’s true church then. Remember, even Paul trembled for the church. The church was in deep trouble and apostasy, and Paul was constantly writing to them warning them of their peril. But yet it is interesting to see how Catholics of today see their church as so much holier than the church of Paul’s day.
EXAMPLE: How do you make the stretch between ‘God’s Church’ having authority and the application of Isaiah 8? Did Isaiah speak specifically about the future “Church founded by Jesus Christ”? or is there another ‘proof-text’ from St Paul (for example) saying Isaiah 8:20 MUST BE READ IN LIGHT OF ‘THE KEYS TO THE KINGDOM VERSES.’
YOU MADE THE STRETCH, YOU ARE INTERPRETING OUTSIDE OF SCRIPTURE.
Again, more quibbling on your part. It amuses me on how individuals as yourself will pick on the weakest part of the armor and unleash your attacks on that one point. I believe that the testimony Isaiah is speaking of is referring to the New Testament, but not relying on Isaiah 8:20 alone. We have plenty of evidence from 2 Tim 3:16 and 17,
I also want you to take careful notice to Acts 17:11 –
These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so.
The Bereans were considered more “noble” than the Thessalonicans, and the scripture here makes it very plain that they did not just go by what their church told them. They “searched daily to see whether the things they were being taught were so”. In other words, regardless of what your Church says, you have to verify it in scripture to see whether it is SO!
Lie low, Ly, you are embarrassing yourself.
Go in peace.
Robert
“Think not that I am come to send peace on earth: I came not to send peace, but a sword.” ~ Matt 10:34
The word (sword) of God
separates the
“wheat” from the
“tares”. There can be no peace between the two.

Next I shall continue with SDA2RC. Remember, it’s pretty much 10 against 1 or 2. I have to reply to ALL of you! Of course, I asked for it when joining a Catholic Forum.
