B
bobregan
Guest
“Orangeman”…Is that you, Miles!!!
You don’t have to do anything you don’t want to do. All I did was ask a question. Can, or will you answer it?Do I have to really answer that question?
Against him?You do know that I am Catholic, right?
Your last questions are not related to Luther’s position on Jews. I cannot argue that he had no authority to do everythign that he did. There is no question. But, back to the topic: should we hold his position on Jews against him?
You would properly compare Luther to Jesus, because each is a founder.Why would I?
Of course the Reformation (which can’t simply be reduced to Luther) began something new and different–a new and different tradition within Christianity. It wasn’t a new religion. And this is what you just don’t seem to get.
No one thinks Luther is divine or that he brought new revelation. The most that Protestants claim about Luther is that he brought a clearer understanding of the Gospel, which had been obscured for centuries, and shed some fresh light on the eternal truths of the Christian faith. To refute this, you have to refute the actual theology. You can’t just point out flaws in Luther. It won’t work. It especially won’t work against Lutherans and other classical Protestants, since one of the “new ideas” of the Reformation was precisely a stronger insistence on the Augustinian idea that we all remain deeply sinful as long as we are in this life. Wesleyans are more susceptible to the kind of argument you’re making–but Wesleyans are a bit suspicious of Luther anyway.
Protestantism does not rest on Luther’s character. Destroying Luther’s character will not destroy Protestantism. You are setting up a straw man–declaring certain criteria for authenticity that Protestants don’t necessarily accept in the first place. Can’t you see how pointless this is?
It’s also ironic that you are engaging in the very “overthinking” of which another poster accused me: that is, you are picking on one word I used (“early”) without regard to the context (“early” in the context of a specific theological tradition within Christianity), and using this to argue that Luther is equivalent to Jesus (in the minds of Protestants), which is obviously false and does not follow from my use of the word “early.”
I am the first to agree that Protestantism has huge problems in the area of historical continuity. The point I’m trying to make in this thread is that no Protestant thinks that Luther is somehow equivalent to Jesus. No Protestant thinks “Protestantism must be true because Luther was so holy.” Protestants typically think "Protestantism must be true because it is clearly taught in the Bible.’ Therefore, that’s where you should be focusing your efforts.
Where criticisms of Luther’s character are relevant is where they directly relate to false ideas Protestants have. For instance, exposing Luther’s anti-Judaism is relevant if Protestants are claiming that Protestantism was an improvement in this regard, or generally criticizing the Catholic Church for its attitude to Jews. Luther’s vitriolic rhetoric toward all with whom he disagreed is relevant when Protestants say something like, “Well, of course he was nasty to the Catholic Church because the Catholic Church was so corrupt.” Pointing out that Luther used similar language toward other Protestants (often for believing things that most modern Protestants believe, like a spiritual/symbolic interpretation of the Eucharist) is perfectly appropriate.
In short, I have no problem with a specific, focused, relevant criticism of Luther’s character. What is illegitimate and unhelpful is the general argument “Look at how many flaws Luther had–how can you take any of his ideas seriously.”
This is equivocal use of language. It makes no sense. If there are several religions all called “Christian,” then saying that we are all “Christians” is misleading, indeed dishonest on your part. What Protestants think you are saying when you say “we are all Christians” is that we share one faith in spite of our differences. If you aren’t saying that, you should never tell a Protestant that you recognize them to be Christian, because they will not understand what you are saying and you are in effect treacherously lying to them.
“Christian” normally functions in human speech as the name of a religion. And in the case of Christianity, defining what is a single religion and what isn’t is vitally important (as is arguably not the case for other traditions like Hinduism). I do use the word in a broader sense at times, but only with clear qualifications. So I will say that Mormons are Christians in some sense, but will never say it without qualification because it could be misinterpreted as saying that they are part of the same religion I am, which I do not believe.
Edwin
The two points you made here totally contradict each other. You need not be a scholar to understand that.Catholics don’t have any unity on Luther. *Exsurge Domine *said that the Pope could, “without any further citation or delay, proceed against him to his condemnation and damnation…” *Decet Romanum Pontificem *spoke of Luther’s “depraved and damnable purpose.” It called for any of the faithful who were sympathetic to the Lutherans to shun them, so that they “may escape divine vengeance and any degree of participation in their damnation.” It further declared concerning Luther and his followers: “…these and the other sentences, censures and punishments… we decree to have fallen on all these men to their damnation.”
However, the great German Catholic historian from the Universities of Breslau and Bonn, Hubert Jedin held that Catholicism never condemned Luther by name at Trent, and that no official judgment on Luther exists by which a loyal Catholic is bound.
I leave it to better minds than mine to determine the navigation through such official statements.
If we just look at a few historical dates, we can put things into perspective.I have read it. Lots of times.
He was a bad steward of the Church, there is no doubt. There is more than a reasonable doubt that this article says that he did what you claim he did
nope … actually my choice of screen names was more historical (I might change it because it’s a little overly hostile upon further reflection). I’m an anglo-saxon / italian (moms side of the family is from central / northern Italy — yup right from your mecca … btw been to the Vatican many times, nice art / dubious theology) yankee ex-Catholic who has been protestant for many years now.Orangeman, you sound familiar…you wouldn’t happen to be an Irishman living in Tennessee?:irish1:
hey I was only joking about Hahn (notice the smiley I put in the post). Gee wiz … you guys are sensative; like a bunch of girlie men (as Arnold would say)I just felt like juxtasposing these two comments made by orange_man, I thought it was funny.
hey I was only joking about Hahn (notice the smiley I put in the post). Gee wiz … you guys are sensitive; like a bunch of girlie men (as Arnold would say)![]()
Ok, not going to debate the time-line. Where did the pope say selling indugences is acceptable?If we just look at a few historical dates, we can put things into perspective.
Luther went to Rome as sort of a mediator to reunite the German churches. I believe he was only in his mid-twenties, yet confidence in his ability to achieve the task was high. This was in the fall of 1510 until February 1511.
Luther saw what he describes as horrendous immorality even among priests. Yet, Luther still had faith in the Pope, (Jullius II at that time)
In October 1, 1512 Luther received his Doctor of Divinity degree.
As late as 1516, Luther still preached his faith in the Vicar of Christ. “If Christ had not entrusted all power to one man, the Church would not have been perfect because there would have been no order and each one would have been able to say he was led by the Holy Spirit. This is what the heretics did, each one setting up his own principle. In this way as many churches arose as there were heads. Christ therefore wills, in order that all may be assembled in one unity, that His Power be exercised by one man to whom also He commits it. He has, however, made this Power so strong that He looses all the powers of Hell (without injury) against it. He says : ’ The gates of Hell shall not prevail against it,’…”
Letter to Pope Leo X, Accompanying the “Resolutions” to the XCV Theses by Dr. Martin Luther, 1518
iclnet.org/pub/resources/text/wittenberg/luther/nine5-pope.txt
Afterward, on Nov. 9, 1518, Leo X is said to have issued the bull Cum postquam, which defined the doctrine of indulgences and addressed the issue of the authority of the church to absolve the faithful from temporal punishment.
(If someone can provide a link to this document it would be appreciated)
In the meantime, We can see that Luther preached according to the Catholic faith and trusted the authority of the Pope right up til 1518 when he appealed to the pope, giving the appearance in the text, the pope was well aware of the goings on. Altho I couldn’t find correspondence to the pope before this date, it is obviously Luther believed the pope would clear his name.
Things to consider: Luther had faith in the Pope thru 1516. Luther wrote his 95 theses in 1517. He contacted the pope by at least 1518 or sooner, concerning these matters. The pope responded by defending his right to sell indulgences.
Ginger
Supposedly in his bull Cum postquam, which is why I am asking to see the text.Ok, not going to debate the time-line. Where did the pope say selling indugences is acceptable?
That is outright false. I’ve proven this, yet you keep making that false claim.Contarini, you said that you know that Luther was right, because you see it in the Bible.
The Bible that Luther changed to fit the doctrine that he just changed.
Please, the link? I can translate it.I was only able to find a Latin and German copy of the 1518 Papal Bull – unhelpful.
Selling could have been a little more expressly forbidden, but see Trent, Session XXI, Reforms, Chap IX, and Session XXV, Reforms, Chap. XXI.I was only able to find a Latin and German copy of the 1518 Papal Bull – unhelpful.
However, here’s an article from Ignatious Press which discusses the history a bit and generally about indulgences. Pope Paul VI issued a papal bull on the doctrine. I’m a bit unclear but it looks like indulgences were sold by charlatans in the church but I couldn’t find any support that the Pope endorsed the sale of indulgences. Indeed, the Church did and does defend indulgences but selling is another issue. I think selling was expressly disavowed at Trent.
insightscoop.typepad.com/2004/2009/02/please-indulge-a-defense-of-indulgences-for-a-moment.html
Also here’s a primer on bibical bases of indulgences:
catholic.com/library/Primer_on_Indulgences.asp
The concept of Purgatory is one which I believe Lutherans expressly reject, so, it’s no small wonder that they would seize upon indulgences generally as outrageous.
I haven’t read all of this stuff so I’m not injecting myself into the fray of discussion here, just providing what looks to be the Catholic view of the history and the doctrine. It seems quite detailed (the history and the doctrine). Doesn’t yield itself easily to debate and discussion online but that’s my two cents.![]()
You know, it is possible that it was not really addressed. If you look at what Luther wrote overall, he was as much attacking indugences and the authority of the pope to grant them as he was the sale of them. It is possible that the pope took more issue with the theological issue of indulgences and missed the finer point of the sale of them.That is only excerpts. If someone can find the entire decree I would appreciate it.
In the meantime, here is a portion of what it states taken from the middle:
The Roman bishop, the successor of key bearer Peter and deputy Jesus Christ on earth, can by virtue of them Authority of the keys which serve to unlock the kingdom of heaven while they his obstacles in the Christian’s believer remove (since the guilt and the punishment owed for the topical sins, namely the guilt by means of the sacrament of the buses, for the topical sins according to the divine justice owed temporal punishment, however, by means of the ecclesiastical one Of indulgence), for reasonable reasons this very Christian’s believer which are by the tape of the dear limbs of Christ - whether they now in this life are or at purgatory -, from the abundance of the salaries of Christ and the holy Ablässe grant; and while he grants an indulgence by virtue of apostolic authority for living persons like for dead, he maintains the treasure of her to distribute salaries Jesus Christ and the saints and to grant the indulgence independently in the way of the absolution or on to transfer the way of the Fürbitte him.
And, so, everything becomes, living persons like dead who have attained really all this Ablässe, from such big litre of beer of the temporal punishment, as they owe them according to the divine justice for her topical sins, releases as it corresponds to the granted and acquired indulgence.
And We decide by virtue of apostolic authority on account of this very present [writing] that it must be held on thus under action punishment of the excommunication… (feel free to corrects any errors I might have made)
Since the charge is selling indulgences, I am curious why that issue does not appear to be addressed.
This was a response to Luther’s complaints against those unscrupulous men who were selling indulgences in Rome. This excerpt does not mention that, only the pope’s presumed authority to absolve sins for the living and dead.
I want to see the part of this document where it is denied or justified. There must be some place to view the document in its entirety.![]()