I’m not trying to ‘force’ my morals on others; conversely, nobody has a right to ‘force’ their morals onto me.
And the person insisting that morals are relative, that Catholics have ‘one set’ and non-Catholics another, are forcing their morals onto me.
Can’t have it all ways. Either there is just ‘one set’ of morals. . .or there is no such thing as ‘morals’.
Because you can’t have contradictory things both be true.
There has to be ‘one set’ of morals for all human beings. . .not one set for group A and a totally different one for group B.
If you have ‘different sets’. . . .where did you get the moral in the first place, eh?
If something is moral for X hundred or thousand years for all humanity, then becomes only a ‘religious moral’ for some but only OPTIONAL for all others for X hundred or thousand years, then becomes still further a ‘religious moral’ for some, an ‘option’ for some, and an absolute ‘no-no’ for others. . .and all three things are considered perfectly ‘moral’ and correct even though they totally contradict each other. . .you don’t have morality, you have anarchy.
If you tell me that an individual gets to decide what is moral for himself, that person is not making a moral judgment at all. He or she is making a ‘choice of convenience.’
And if you tell me that society gets to decide what is moral for its citizens, I’d like you to explain Nazi Germany or Communist China or the Taliban. According to their members, they made and make perfectly moral and legitimate choices. But most of the rest of the world disagrees. Isn’t that a tad hypocritical? If these groups (and others) are transgressing some ‘higher’ moral law than their particular societal one, where did that law come from? And why is it all right for us in AD 2010 to disregard other laws and claim that unlike Nazi Germany, Communist China, and the Taliban, OUR transgression of moral law really IS legitimate, but theirs is not?