(1)How do you know what books are “supposed” to be in the Bible?)
This is what your first question falls badly into. Evidences cannot be used to solve epistimological claims for either side. If either one of us say that we know the canon by a specific fact, then we go back in infinite regression…
My gut doesnt buy that, Im one of those stubborn types that has to see for himself.
Some Catholics will say we know what the canon is because of the authority of the Catholic Church.
Ok, we started off at “A” (We know becuase of the Church, how about you) Now onto “B”…
Of course, this is very quickly shown to be infinitely regressive when we ask how the … Catholic Church has the authority to do that, and not the Mormon’s, … and such.
This is a bogus conclusion, there is more to an institution than a jumble of letters. For one lets start off with history. The CC claims to be the first and oldest, none of the groups you mentioned even dare claim that. Isnt God a god of history, the beginning and the end? History is recorded information that we use to come to conclusions base on what reall did happen, 75% of the OT is history.
If he appeals to things within the church, such as the church’s claim to apostolic succession, or it’s claim to Papal Infallibility, then he begs the question, because such already assumes the authority of the Roman Catholic Church.
Whats this appeals stuff? Is it not the CC right to make such a solid claim? You throw this away as if it means nothing. This is part “B”:apostolic succession/Pope Inf.
You start off with the Bible, so where did the Bible come from? (I dont mind if your reply leads to an infinite regression or whatever.) I say the CC, on to part “B” for me, now you…
However, …[how do]… we know that the Roman Catholic Church is that authority because of another ultimate authority.
On to part “C”, the CC claims such authority becuase Christ himself chose a group of men and put that authority on them. One specific person was singled out with a special form of that authroity…
…Again, we have to say another ultimate authority to avoid begging the question…
Here is where you turn into the skeptic, I just said Jesus Himself said that.You should agree that what Jesus says means something?, We both use the Bible as a source dont we?
The goes on and on and on… Hence, we might call your question #1 the “table of contents fallacy.”
False, this is a popular version of debate that goes back through history called “Spin Doctoring”. Your friend is very good at that. For those who dont know what that term means, a Spin Doctor is someone who takes something (for example world history) and rewrites it so that it says something other that the direct/original truth, this is done by making false arguments and bogus claims to create confusion and lead to the Doctor’s desired answer instead of what the real answer is. This is no fallacy, when dealing with your life, its nice to know why you believe that 27 specific books are in your Bible instead of shrugging it off.
How do we know God’s revelation? Well, the books that are in the Bible are in the Bible because they are God-Breathed [2 Timothy 3:16]. Such might seem circular, that is, the scriptures are what they are because they say so. However, as we have just seen, we cannot avoid this circularity.
That is a bogus claim, why shoud you turn to circular definitions? You got yourself noplace. Also that verse you quoted was way out of context, the word “Bible” is not in the Bible, so that 2Tim quote has nothing to stand on. We can avoid circularity by facing reality and asking questions.
… What we have, then, are two presupposed authorities:
The Catholic believes in Scripture+[T]radition as an authority.
The Protestant believes in scripture alone as an ultimate authority.
Again you stopped at the gate, where did you find out what books belong in scripture? You didnt just blindly follow a leader as the Bible teaches us not to do, because they could be wrong.