Just a thought, it is written, ‘What then? Are we better than they? Not at all; for we have already charged that both Jews and Greeks are all under sin; as it is written, “There is none righteous, not even one; There is none who understands, There is none who seeks for God; All have turned aside, together they have become useless; There is none who does good, There is not even one.”’ (Rom 3:9-12 NASB). There is an exception to the “all have sinned”, and that is found in 2 Cor 5:21 (He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.), which is speaking of Jesus. The Scriptures make no other exception for being without sin. Yet, the Catholic Church says, "The most Blessed Virgin Mary was, from the moment of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege from almighty God and by virtue of the merits of Jesus Christ, Saviour of the human race, preserved immune from all stain of original sin (CCC 491). How is this tradition made dogma NOT contrary to the written Word of God? (Just something to ponder, as this is not the topic of the thread.)