Some think Matthew 4:4 is teaching sola Scriptura

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Medwigel . . .
So why were they offering rams and sheep and goats and bulls?
To foreshadow the good things to come.

Primarily Christ.

Secondarily Christ in us and through us (with our cooperation).

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HEBREWS 10:1 1 For since the law has but a shadow of the good things to come instead of the true form of these realities, it can never, by the same sacrifices which are continually offered year after year, make perfect those who draw near.
 
Medwigel . . .
Only His sacrifice was able to take away and atone for all sin once and for all.
Yes but that’s only the moment portion.

There is a process aspect to all of this where Christ CONTINUES TO WORK.

Jesus works IN AND THROUGH Christians who are willing to accept and cooperate in His Grace too.

That is HOW for example a man CAN atone for sin!
(As the Bible explicitly tells us)

A man can atone for sin only because as a Christian Christ works in and through the Christian.
JAMES 5:19-20 19 My brethren, if any one among you wanders from the truth and some one brings him back, 20 let him know that whoever brings back a sinner from the error of his way
will save his soul from death and
will cover a multitude of sins.
This close association Christians have with Christ (He abides in us and we IN Him) makes things like saving your soul (the process) from death and covering a multitude of sins a distinct possiility according to Scripture.

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We’ve been given that gift when we were brought into Jesus via our Christian Baptism.
ROMANS 6:3 3 Do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death?
 
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So you are saying we should still be following the law of Moses, yet this is what Paul has to say about the law:
Like I said the 10 commandments are part of the law of Moses. I just can’t see why you believe…
Now that Christ has come the time for the law is over and we now live in the dispensation of faith.
Like I said I see nothing in the Bible that tells us we no longer need to obey the 10 commandments. Jesus didn’t say the time for these laws are over He said He fulfilled them and perfected them. Sure we live by faith in the New Covenant, however a big portion of that faith is believing and following what Christ commanded us to do.

I understand why you have to believe this illogical reasoning, it is the only way you can dismiss certain profound Biblical text, like John 20, and make it fit into your theology.

I’m still waiting on your Critical Thinking interpretation of John 20.

God Bless
 
I understand why you have to believe this illogical reasoning, it is the only way you can dismiss certain profound Biblical text, like John 20, and make it fit into your theology.

I’m still waiting on your Critical Thinking interpretation of John 20.
So why do you suppose the verse alludes to belief and unbelief? What does faith have to do with it?
If the Apostles can discern on their own who can be forgiving and who shouldn’t be forgiven, why is there any mention of the person’s faith?

John 20:23 If you forgive the sins of anyone they are forgiven [because of their faith]; if you retain the sins of anyone, they are retained [and remain unforgiven because of their unbelief].”
So you are saying we should still be following the law of Moses, yet this is what Paul has to say about the law:
Have you read Galatians 3:23-25
23 Now before faith came, we were kept in custody under the Law, [perpetually] imprisoned [in preparation] for the faith that was destined to be revealed, 24 with the result that the Law has become our tutor and our disciplinarian to guide us to Christ, so that we may be [c]justified [that is, declared free of the guilt of sin and its penalty, and placed in right standing with God] by faith. 25 But now that faith has come, we are no longer under [the control and authority of] a tutor and disciplinarian.

This belief:
Now that Christ has come the time for the law is over and we now live in the dispensation of faith.
Comes from this verse
25 But now that faith has come, we are no longer under [the control and authority of] a tutor and disciplinarian.

The tutor is the law of Moses.
 
So why do you suppose the verse alludes to belief and unbelief? What does faith have to do with it?
If the Apostles can discern on their own who can be forgiving and who shouldn’t be forgiven, why is there any mention of the person’s faith?

John 20:23 If you forgive the sins of anyone they are forgiven [because of their faith]; if you retain the sins of anyone, they are retained [and remain unforgiven because of their unbelief].”
There isn’t any mention of the persons faith. You do realize that Jesus never said the words faith or unbelief don’t you? Those words were added to what Jesus actually said, you know that right?

Like I said even if the verse alludes to belief or unbelief it doesn’t matter because Jesus tells the Apostles YOU FORGIVE and YOU RETAIN. If you want to say the the Apostles can only do this because of the persons faith then you just gave the Apostles the ability to know a persons heart. Basically an ability only God has and not man, that is unless the Holy Spirit came upon those men.

Once again your just parroting something that you were taught about the vers. you are just blindly following your pastor and have never given this verse an ounce of critical thought on your own.

Adding the words faith and unbelief doesn’t change the context to say what you want it to say. Add as many words as you want the context of the verse will remain sin and Jesus giving the Apostles the ability to Forgive and Retain said sins.

God Bless
 
There isn’t any mention of the persons faith. You do realize that Jesus never said the words faith or unbelief don’t you? Those words were added to what Jesus actually said, you know that right?
You do know that Jesus did not speak English right. His words were translated, and there is always the risk of the true meaning and context of a statement being lost in translation.

Paul teaches extensively on how forgiveness through grace can’t be earned and is given freely. So if you go with your assumption that man can dole out forgiveness and it’s not freely given then either Paul or Jesus must be lying.
You are the one who’s blindly following because you have not read beyond just that one verse to see how does it all fit together. The church told you priest can forgive your sins and you roll with it without searching the Scripture further.
Have you read Galatians 3?
 
Medwigel referring to John 20:23 . . . .

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So why do you suppose the verse alludes to belief and unbelief?
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The verse doesn’t refer to “belief” and “unbelief” at all. (The verse refers to “SINS”)

“Belief” and “unbelief” is NOT explicitly in the passage.

“SINS” are.

“Belief” and “unbelief” is a partial-truth ADDITION to justify a tradition of men that makes void a commandment of God.

(Someone may have the sin of unbelief, but they can have many other sins too.
By the way. If they had the sin of unbelief, there is almost no chance they would seek out the Apostles to “cash-in” on this power of forgiveness the Apostles were given.)

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Here is what the verse REALLY says . . .

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(Please Note: This uploaded content is no longer available.)

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http://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/20-23.htm

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Here is a legitimate translation of the passage (with emphasis mine) . . .
JOHN 20:22b-23 22 he breathed on them,
and said to them, “Receive the Holy Spirit. 23
IF YOU FORGIVE the SINS of any,
THEY ARE forgiven;
IF YOU RETAIN the SINS of any,
THEY ARE retained.”
 
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The 10 Commandments are a summary of the Levitical laws. All the Levitical laws are a detailed breakdown of the 10 commandments therefore the 10 commandments represents the law as well.
Since the 10 commandments preceded the Levitical law, how is it that they are a summary of what came after them?

I can agree that the Levitical Law details what is written in the Commandments, and that the 10 commandments are part of God’s Law.

17 And as he was setting out on his journey, a man ran up and knelt before him, and asked him, “Good Teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?” 18 And Jesus said to him, “Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone. 19 You know the commandments: ‘Do not kill, Do not commit adultery, Do not steal, Do not bear false witness, Do not defraud, Honor your father and mother.’” 20 And he said to him, “Teacher, all these I have observed from my youth.” 21 And Jesus looking upon him loved him, and said to him, “You lack one thing; go, sell what you have, and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven; and come, follow me.” 22 At that saying his countenance fell, and he went away sorrowful; for he had great possessions. Mark 10

Why did Jesus tell the rich young ruler that he could inherit eternal life by following the commandments?
 
If the Apostles can discern on their own who can be forgiving and who shouldn’t be forgiven, why is there any mention of the person’s faith?
This is a good question. A person who does not have faith would not come to those authorized to forgive sins and confess them.

Jesus gave them the authority and power (discernment) to forgive and retain sins. They are not “on their own” but the Holy Spirit works within and through them to be able to make the right judgment.
John 20:23 If you forgive the sins of anyone they are forgiven; if you retain the sins of anyone, they are retained.”
The Holy Spirit gives them this authority and discernment.
Galatians 3:23-25 " the Law has become our tutor and our disciplinarian to guide us to Christ
What makes you think this has changed? The fact that it is fulfilled in Christ does not make the tutor void!
You do know that Jesus did not speak English right. His words were translated, and there is always the risk of the true meaning and context of a statement being lost in translation.
This is absolutely true!

This is one reason Jesus did not write books, but founded a Church. He gave His One Church authority and power so that His teachings would not get lost.

1 Timothy 3:15 if I am delayed, you may know how one ought to behave in the household of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and bulwark of the truth.

He promised to lead the Church into “all Truth”, and so He has done. The Church produced the New Testament. That is why there is nothing in it that is not Catholic.
 
Paul teaches extensively on how forgiveness through grace can’t be earned and is given freely. So if you go with your assumption that man can dole out forgiveness and it’s not freely given then either Paul or Jesus must be lying.
You have made a false conclusion based upon a false premise. Humans do not “dole out” forgiveness. They act in the person of Christ, who give forgiveness freely.

1 John 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just, and will forgive our sins and cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

And getting into a boat he crossed over and came to his own city. 2 And behold, they brought to him a paralytic, lying on his bed; and when Jesus saw their faith he said to the paralytic, “Take heart, my son; your sins are forgiven.” 3 And behold, some of the scribes said to themselves, “This man is blaspheming.” 4 But Jesus, knowing[a] their thoughts, said, “Why do you think evil in your hearts? 5 For which is easier, to say, ‘Your sins are forgiven,’ or to say, ‘Rise and walk’? 6 But that you may know that the Son of man has authority on earth to forgive sins”—he then said to the paralytic—“Rise, take up your bed and go home.” 7 And he rose and went home. 8 When the crowds saw it, they were afraid, and they glorified God, who had given such authority to men. Matt 9:1-8

Who are these “men” (plural) to whom God gave this authority? This gospel was written some 50 years after the Apostles and their successors had been hearing confessions and forgiving/retaining sins. Do you really think they misunderstood?
You are the one who’s blindly following because you have not read beyond just that one verse to see how does it all fit together. The church told you priest can forgive your sins and you roll with it without searching the Scripture further.
This is not the case at all, medwigel. In fact, you would be hard put to find more Catholics anywhere that CAF that know their scriptures. The difference is that we read the Scriptures through the lens of the Apostolic faith that has been infallibly preserved in the Church by the Holy Spirit. You read it through the lens of the Reformation, some 1500 years after people departed from that faith.

We cannot accept your interpretations, because for us, they constitute “a different gospel” than the one we received from the Apostles.
 
You do know that Jesus did not speak English right. His words were translated, and there is always the risk of the true meaning and context of a statement being lost in translation.
So you believe every translator of every Bible for the past 1900 years didn’t realize Jesus wasn’t talking about SIN here? Then all of the sudden the Amp Bible got it right and found the real context, faith not sin, was what Jesus truly meant?

Seriously?

You can’t be that gullible. Forget what you were taught and read John 20 on your own. Even use your Amp Bible. The addition of faith and unbelief doesn’t change the context. The context has been and always will be sin.

On a side note not sure if you realize it or not but Jesus spoke Aramaic not Greek. So the original writings, which we don’t have, were already a translation of Jesus words. If you are going to use this as your defense then you need a group or organization, that has been translating the Bible from the beginning, to have a shred of evidence that your translation is even close to what Jesus meant.

If you would like some help finding that group let me know .
Paul teaches extensively on how forgiveness through grace
Why do you keep interpreting Jesus based on your interpretation of St. Paul. I agree we need to read the Bible as a whole but we don’t Ignore or dismiss the obvious context of Jesus words because of St. Paul’s writings.

You’ve been told over and over by us on this sight, we don’t believe the “Priest” is forgiving the sin all on their own. I already told you why, Jesus breathed remember. The sin is forgiven through the grace they received through the Holy Spirit.

So from the Catholic point of view we can accept what Jesus said and we can accept what St. Paul says on equal ground. We don’t need to ignore Jesus words and add to them to make them fit into our theology.
You are the one who’s blindly following because you have not read beyond just that one verse to see how does it all fit together. The church told you priest can forgive your sins and you roll with it without searching the Scripture further.
Have you read Galatians 3?
Yes and it doesn’t change the context of the Gospels

God Bless
 
The point I am making is I agree with St. Paul, the free gift of grace you already received is not a pass to your future sins. To me this would mean the grace you have right now does not cover the sins you will commit 10 years from now. I’m pretty sure you will agree that we both will most like continue to sin in this life. Therefore, it is only logical to come to the conclusion something else needs to take place in order to get more FREE grace to cover those future sins.
The grace that Christ gives us is complete and all reaching. His one act covers ALL of our sins Of this Paul says:

Colossians 2:13 When you were dead in your sins and in the uncircumcision of your flesh, God made you[d] alive with Christ. He forgave us all our sins, 14 having canceled the charge of our legal indebtedness, which stood against us and condemned us; he has taken it away, nailing it to the cross.

Paul says Christ has forgiven ALL of our sins, no some or half or past- no, Christ forgave all our sins. Christ made a way for us even before we believed in Him!
JL: Paul also does not say future. Scripture nor Paul ever speaks of future sins being forgiven without repentance and confession. Col2 is talking about all sins before baptism which are forgiven with baptism look at the context. In Jn20 Christ gave the power to NT priests to forgive sins after baptism. Otherwise it would be ridiculous to give them the Holy Spirit to forgive or retain sins.

[Col2:8 Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ. 9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. 10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power: 11 In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ: 12 Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead. 13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses; 14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;]

It appears you are once saved always saved which is contrary to scripture.
 
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As you conceded the oral traditions at the time that Paul was writing to the church in Thesonica (his earliest letters) was later enscripturated in such doctrinal theses such as the epistles to the Romans, Ephesians, Galatians, Hebrews, and captured in the later writing of the four gospels.
Certainly parts of them have been, but the writings themselves attest that there is more.

And no matter what part was written, that does not absolve us of the Apostolic commandment to keep (and preserve) those that were not written.
what we do know is that scripture provides us with what we need to be fully equipped to know the word of god, and these scriptures which are god-breathed are certain.
Even those of us that also believe the Church is “god-breathed” will agree that the Scriptures are so.

But Scripture does not say it is all that is needed for the disciple to be fully equipped. This is a Protestant doctrine that was developed during the Reformation. It never existed in the Church before that.
The oral traditions you speak of, not captured by the scriptures are of uncertain origin and have numerous witnesses arguing for and against and often conflict with scripture which we know is certain.
The Teaching of the Apostles is as much the Word of God as those that are written, which is why we are told to preserve them.

None of them ever conflict with Scripture, since they both are from the Holy Spirit.

The interpretation of the Scriptures was separated from the Teaching of the Apostles during the Reformation. New doctrines were created, to justify splitting from the Church founded by Christ.
To tell me I am departing scripture for traditions of men when you yourself hold to discuss cattiness conflicting with scripture turns the argument on its head.
I fully appreciate your sincerity. I also respect that you may not realize that you have embraced "different doctrines’ that were just invented during the Reformation.

The new doctrines amount to what the Apostles taught us is “a different gospel” than the one we received, which is why we cannot accept them.
 
To tell me I am departing scripture for traditions of men when you yourself hold to discuss cattiness conflicting with scripture turns the argument on its head.
Again and again people we seem to take the line of least resistance - we prefer auto-absolution which seems a grand product of our pride. We tend to, very likely, go to confess in public, if at all we do so, those sins we think we can whitewash, but the “red” ones left for Jesus to ‘absolve’ quietly. Fine! Christ left a Ministry which has been cited elsewhere in posts. The Catholic church again is very clear about the process where the priest is charged with strict confidentiality. Sean77 and friends must obey Jesus in his desire to integrate us into society by sending us back to the Sanhedrin. It is a requirement that we see the priest (somebody he obviously doesn’t like and he doesn’t have to do so) for the process. Jesus assured us of this process and has no hitches at all. The truth is not very palatable for some but the sweet bit of it is that it remains the truth even we attempt to twist it. Take it or leave.
AMEN!
 
The same way the Jews were certain that the Tanakh was from God. Only they didn’t claim that the priests were infallible.
 
Sean77 (here. bold mine) . . .
However, what we do know is that scripture provides us
with what we need to be fully equipped to know the word of god (sic),
and these scriptures which are god (sic) -breathed
are certain.
Cathoholic (here) . . . .
What comprises “these scriptures” Sean77?
Which books and letters comprise “scripture”?
(How can you be “certain”?)
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Sean77 (here) . . . .
The same way the Jews were certain that the Tanakh was from God. Only they didn’t claim that the priests were infallible.
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I want to break this answer down to bite-sized pieces.

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Sean77 . . . .
The same way the Jews were certain that the Tanakh was from God.
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And HOW was THAT Sean?

That’d be exclusively infallible oral Tradition. (Unless you want to show me a verse for THAT part of the Canon too.)

Sean77. You went on saying . . . .
Only they didn’t claim that the priests were infallible.
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The problem with THAT Sean, is Catholics likewise don’t teach our priests are infallible.

We teach that SOME of them (the Bishop of Rome IS a ministerial “priest”)
under certain circumstances, CAN utilize their charism of infallibility.

The Old Testament Israelites taught the same thing Sean77 (when using the Urim and the Thummim).

When the high priest “goes in before the LORD” in the Holy Place of meeting in the Tent (the prefigurement to the Temple), that high priest could give “the judgment of the people of Israel”.

And if you go on, you will find out that this “judgment” is from God as Jimmy Akin has pointed out.

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EXODUS 28:30 30 And in the breastpiece of judgment you shall put the Urim and the Thummim, and they shall be upon Aaron’s heart, when he goes in before the LORD; thus Aaron shall bear the judgment of the people of Israel upon his heart before the LORD continually.
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And if you look at the Old Covenant paradigm (but a New Testament writing), you will see the high priest didn’t even HAVE TO be wearing Urim and the Thummim to be speaking infallible truth.

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JOHN 11:49-52 49 But one of them, Caiaphas, who was high priest that year, said to them, “You know nothing at all; 50 you do not understand that it is expedient for you that one man should die for the people, and that the whole nation should not perish.” 51
He did not say this of his own accord, but being high priest that year he prophesied that Jesus should die for the nation,
52 and not for the nation only,
but to gather into one the children of God who are scattered abroad.
 
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Except for the fact that Jesus explicitly called out the oral tradition you keep referring to as aberrations of God’s word several times. Its all fine and dandy that you can pick a verse about Caiaphas saying something correct. Not disputing that his prophecy was correct though for a totally different reason than he thought. Again, was Jewish tradition infallible? The answer is clearly no (Matthew 15, Mark 7 as examples). Infallible means infallible. Not sometimes. All the time. Otherwise you offer a meaningless anachronistic definition.
 
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Sean77 . . .
Infallible means infallible. Not sometimes.
Is THAT an infallible definition you are giving Sean77?

Do you have this infallibility “not sometimes” but all the times Sean77?

Or is what you are saying . . . .NON-infallible . . . concerning your beliefs about infallibility?

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(Certainly I don’t expect you to fall into another tradition of men that nullifies the commandments of God right in the middle of YOU telling ME, how we should use the Bible ALONE. Right Sean77?
Infallible means infallible. Not sometimes.
So please show me the book, chapter, and verse you are getting your insights on infallibility from Sean77?)
 
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Apparently no one ever taught you to use the word you are defining in your definition. Anyway, here you go. Pssst, language actually means something.

Definition of infallible

incapable of error : unerring
 
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