F
fewnotmany
Guest
Did your husband interprete your ‘talking in tongues’ to mean you believe in the resurrection?. . . . how could someone talk in tongues if they have never did it before and what could it mean, this has bothered me for so long. can anyone tell me
From a biblical perspective, ‘talking in tongues’ **had **(past tense highlighted intentionally) to do with preaching the gospel – 1 Cor 15:3 For I (Paul) delivered to you as of first importance what I also received, that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, 4 and that He was buried, and that He was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures.
Having stated that ‘talking in tongues’ had a specific purpose for a specific time, my answer to your question is, you were not talking in tongues in the biblical sense of the term, it was nothing more than nonsense syllables trying to fill in the gaps that your mind created while experiencing a nightmare that was very disturbing.