Steve Ray-Amalekites 1-26-15

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Death is death BP. Whether an innocent child dies by the sword, by disease, by being hit by a truck or by drowning, every instance is under the control of Almighty God. Why not hold him equally accountable for all those deaths, as well, then? The same Scriptures that report on his command on the Amalekites report that death came to Adam and all mankind by the judgement and command of God. Why use cheap binoculars to focus on one particular instance of death when the entire landscape is an open field of death?
All throughout reading these messages I was thinking what about these other types of death, drowning, disease, accidents of various kinds are all under God’s control… Thanks for bringing it up. I didn’t know how to say it, but you make a great point. 🙂
 
Interesting assertions by PR & Clem. Each of them, of course, is a logical possibility – that is, on the surface, they explain the text as we have it. However, are they reasonable?

Each of them has one thing in common (besides the fact that none of these are supported by the writings of the ECFs or Jewish tradition): they presume an error. Either Moses/Joshua got it wrong, or the inspired writer got it wrong, or the Israelites (thinking back on it) fabricated a story.

That’s an amazing way to interpret Scripture that we don’t like – “somebody messed up”. :rolleyes:

If Moses and/or Joshua got it wrong, then they disobeyed God. Is there any indication that God reprimanded them? (After all, when Moses disobeyed God by striking the rock, God definitely let him know he sinned through his disobedience!)

If the author inspired writer chose to interpret the story differently, why not just say “get rid of pagan influence within our people”? Why couch it as a command about a foreign nation, in a way that’s not at all understandable when reading the text? Why does no one comment on this Scripture as holding the meaning (in a literal sense, not a spiritual one) as such?

I hear what you guys are saying. But… do you have anything to back it up, besides the fact that this is what you want the text to mean? :hmmm:
 
All throughout reading these messages I was thinking what about these other types of death, drowning, disease, accidents of various kinds are all under God’s control… Thanks for bringing it up. I didn’t know how to say it, but you make a great point. 🙂
What you sow does not come to life unless it dies. And as for what you sow, you do not sow the body that is to be, but a bare seed, perhaps of wheat or of some other grain. But God gives it a body as he has chosen, and to each kind of seed its own body…
So it is with the resurrection of the dead. What is sown is perishable, what is raised is imperishable…
For this perishable body must put on imperishability, and this mortal body must put on immortality. When this perishable body puts on imperishability, and this mortal body puts on immortality, then the saying that is written will be fulfilled:
“Death has been swallowed up in victory.”
“Where, O death, is your victory?
Where, O death, is your sting?”
(1 Cor 15:36-55)
 
Interesting assertions by PR & Clem. Each of them, of course, is a logical possibility – that is, on the surface, they explain the text as we have it. However, are they reasonable?

Each of them has one thing in common (besides the fact that none of these are supported by the writings of the ECFs or Jewish tradition): they presume an error. Either Moses/Joshua got it wrong, or the inspired writer got it wrong, or the Israelites (thinking back on it) fabricated a story.

That’s an amazing way to interpret Scripture that we don’t like – “somebody messed up”. :rolleyes:

If Moses and/or Joshua got it wrong, then they disobeyed God. Is there any indication that God reprimanded them? (After all, when Moses disobeyed God by striking the rock, God definitely let him know he sinned through his disobedience!)
No they don’t “presume an error”. :rolleyes: You’ve shown that you don’t understand inspiration and inerrancy.
Gorgias said
If the author inspired writer chose to interpret the story differently, why not just say “get rid of pagan influence within our people”?
Because
Catholic Church says:
109 In Sacred Scripture, God speaks to man in a human way. To interpret Scripture correctly, the reader must be attentive to what the human authors truly wanted to affirm, and to what God wanted to reveal to us by their words.75
110 In order to discover the sacred authors’ intention, the reader must take into account the conditions of their time and culture, the literary genres in use at that time, and the modes of feeling, speaking and narrating then current. "For the fact is that truth is differently presented and expressed in the various types of historical writing, in prophetical and poetical texts, and in other forms of literary expression."76
Because
Catholic Church says:
the biblical text (is not) dictated word for word by the Spirit.
Gorgias says:
Why couch it as a command about a foreign nation, in a way that’s not at all understandable when reading the text? Why does no one comment on this Scripture as holding the meaning (in a literal sense, not a spiritual one) as such?
That’s what we’ve been doing. You simply don’t understand the Catholic literal sense of scripture. 🤷 You confuse literal with literalist.
Gorgias says:
I hear what you guys are saying.
No, you don’t. You might have read the words, you haven’t heard them.
Gorgias says:
But… do you have anything to back it up, besides the fact that this is what you want the text to mean? :hmmm:
Back it up? :rotfl:
Can you simply address the material from the Catholic Church posted through the thread. Can you simply quote whatever it is you have issues with and specifically dispute it?
And maybe you could read the introduction from the NABRE that talks about Samuel and how it was transmitted, who the “author(s)” were, how it was composed.
 
No they don’t “presume an error”. :rolleyes: You’ve shown that you don’t understand inspiration and inerrancy.
I’m the one who isn’t reading closely? Let’s see:
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PRmerger:
Moses and Joshua understood it this way. And the inspired author interpreted it differently.
i.e., Moses & Joshua got it wrong, because the inspired author ‘got it’ right.
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PRmerger:
Moses and Joshua understood it incorrectly
i.e., Moses & Joshua explicitly got it wrong.
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clem456:
Life is messy, and the recording of historical events is not exempt from the messiness of human life.
i.e., life is messy, and therefore, we get things wrong.

Really, clem. I get what you’re saying – and it’s that somebody messed up. Sure, you can say that God intended the error, and through it taught His message… but the heart of your and PR’s argument is “there was a mistake”. 🤷
That’s what we’ve been doing. You simply don’t understand the Catholic literal sense of scripture. 🤷 You confuse literal with literalist.
No, and no. I understand, quite well, what the Church teaches. I just disagree with you on this particular passage, and so you bring out the big guns. 🤷
Can you simply address the material from the Catholic Church posted through the thread.
My contention isn’t with the Church’s approach to reading Scripture; it’s with your assertion that particular passages of that teaching apply to this passage of Scripture.

In particular, it’s a real hoot that you take Benedict’s words and attempt to apply them here. Remember, if this passage is only metaphorical, then there’s no “dark passage” of Scripture here. Benedict tells us that we cannot simply gloss over these passages or explain them away, but that we must deal with them, as difficult as it may be.
And maybe you could read the introduction from the NABRE that talks about Samuel and how it was transmitted, who the “author(s)” were, how it was composed.
None of these suggest that it’s an ahistorical book. 🤷
 
I’m the one who isn’t reading closely? Let’s see:

i.e., Moses & Joshua got it wrong, because the inspired author ‘got it’ right.

i.e., Moses & Joshua explicitly got it wrong.

i.e., life is messy, and therefore, we get things wrong.

Really, clem. I get what you’re saying – and it’s that somebody messed up. Sure, you can say that God intended the error, and through it taught His message… but the heart of your and PR’s argument is “there was a mistake”. 🤷

No, and no. I understand, quite well, what the Church teaches. I just disagree with you on this particular passage, and so you bring out the big guns. 🤷

My contention isn’t with the Church’s approach to reading Scripture; it’s with your assertion that particular passages of that teaching apply to this passage of Scripture.

In particular, it’s a real hoot that you take Benedict’s words and attempt to apply them here. Remember, if this passage is only metaphorical, then there’s no “dark passage” of Scripture here. Benedict tells us that we cannot simply gloss over these passages or explain them away, but that we must deal with them, as difficult as it may be.

None of these suggest that it’s an ahistorical book. 🤷
For starters, no one said the passage is ahistorical.
You misrepresent what people say rather than letting them speak for themselves.
You don’t (can’t) (won’t) address the subject matter directly.
I’m not interested in childish circular arguments.

Your post doesn’t merit a response.
 
For starters, no one said the passage is ahistorical.
Right. Just that it’s a mishmash of misunderstanding, error, and the fog of history.
You misrepresent what people say rather than letting them speak for themselves.
Nah… after you speak for yourselves, I hold up your statements for scrutiny, and make sure you realize what you’re really asserting.
You don’t (can’t) (won’t) address the subject.
I do address the subject. That’s what’s getting your goat – I address it and come up with different conclusions than you do. 🤷
Your post doesn’t merit a response.
And yet… 😉
 
Right. Just that it’s a mishmash of misunderstanding, error, and the fog of history.

Nah… after you speak for yourselves, I hold up your statements for scrutiny, and make sure you realize what you’re really asserting.

I do address the subject. That’s what’s getting your goat – I address it and come up with different conclusions than you do. 🤷

And yet… 😉
You took two posters (PR and I), one of whom was addressing propositions from another poster, conflated those posts and ideas, and misrepresented what was said. In effect you invented assertions and motivations that were not made, and assigned them to two other posters.
What should we call mis-representation like that?
 
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Peter_Plato:
Where, O death, is your sting?

We were made for eternal life… :harp:
 
You took two posters (PR and I), one of whom was addressing propositions from another poster, conflated those posts and ideas, and misrepresented what was said. In effect you invented assertions and motivations that were not made, and assigned them to two other posters.
Well, I have to admit – once you and she quit baldly asserting “metaphor!”, I was glad, since it moved the conversation forward. I was disappointed, though, that the explanation was “error” (primarily PR) and “creative re-imaging of history” (you).

I don’t think I ‘invented’ anything or ‘assigned’ anything to you two. In fact, I often quoted your own words back to you.

Here’s the thing: you and she are starting from a good point and valid principles: all of Scripture is not uniformly historical fact. We agree on that point. At that point, however, you and she move from general principle and make bald, unsupported assertions about one particular passage in Scripture: PR suggests that there was error, and you suggest the fog of history and revisionist recollections.

I think there’s room to discuss what the literal sense of this passage is, especially since it’s a really difficult passage to address (aside from spiritual senses and interpretations). So I ask again: do you have any support for your suggestions? Are there any exegetes who suggest what you assert? From where I’m sitting, it simply looks like a lot of hand-waving. 🤷
What should we call mis-representation like that?
You mean your misrepresentation of my posts? I’d call it ‘amusing’. 😉
 
Simple question: if the Christian god commanded you to kill children, would you do it?
This is a nonsensical question.

It’s like asking, “If the Christian god declared that this is a square, would you believe it?”

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Well, I have to admit – once you and she quit baldly asserting “metaphor!”, I was glad, since it moved the conversation forward.
Well, if you wish.

I assert, again, as I always have: metaphor!
 
Well, if you wish.

I assert, again, as I always have: metaphor!
Oh, right, without a doubt!

Now you’re just not baldly asserting it, but rather, are explaining, “metaphor, because someone made a mistake either in understanding God or in writing down what He meant”. 😉
 
Oh, right, without a doubt!

Now you’re just not baldly asserting it, but rather, are explaining, “metaphor, because someone made a mistake either in understanding God or in writing down what He meant”. 😉


That’s not the conclusion that is to be gleaned when I, and others (such as Jimmy Akin), assert that the dark passages in the OT may be symbolic.
 
http://media.tumblr.com/c0569ea4b1d95d1133a9d9c861572681/tumblr_inline_mhf45fEQkh1qz4rgp.gif

That’s not the conclusion that is to be gleaned when I, and others (such as Jimmy Akin), assert that the dark passages in the OT may be symbolic.
Except that you aren’t claiming they “may be symbolic,” you are claiming they MUST BE symbolic because no other explanation is acceptable nor even can be logically true. Which is why you offered the square circle example.
 
However, I can think of no instances where rape would be permissible - not a single one.
Indeed.

And I can think of no instances where genocide would be permissible–not a single one.

As Jimmy Akin says:
The claim that God has a favorable attitude toward rape is implausible on its face.

And I extrapolate from that to: the claim that God has a favorable attitude towards genocide is implausible on its face.
 
Indeed.

And I can think of no instances where genocide would be permissible–not a single one.

As Jimmy Akin says:
The claim that God has a favorable attitude toward rape is implausible on its face.

And I extrapolate from that to: the claim that God has a favorable attitude towards genocide is implausible on its face.
That God does not have a favorable attitude towards killing does not entail that killing is never permitted or commanded by him.

That you can think of no instances where genocide would be permissible does not mean there can be none possible, which is why it fails to be logically impossible. In fact, it would seem a lesser severe or troubling phenomenon than, say, the Flood, the threat to destroy Ninevah, the destruction of Sodom and Gommorah, and the death or mortality of every human being as a matter of fact. All of these, including the last are metaphors, then?
 
That God does not have a favorable attitude towards killing does not entail that killing is never permitted or commanded by him.
No. God never commands killing.
That you can think of no instances where genocide would be permissible does not mean there can be none possible, which is why it fails to be logically impossible.
What do you say to this, then: that you can think of no instances where rape would be permissible does not mean there can be none possible.
In fact, it would seem a lesser severe or troubling phenomenon than, say, the Flood, the threat to destroy Ninevah, the destruction of Sodom and Gommorah, and the death or mortality of every human being as a matter of fact. All of these, including the last are metaphors, then?
Again, God can give and take life as He sees fit.

God commanding* us* to kill an innocent? Not so much.
 
The claim that God has a favorable attitude toward rape is implausible on its face.

And I extrapolate from that to: the claim that God has a favorable attitude towards genocide is implausible on its face.
Ahh… there we go. Finally.

It’s not that Benedict says it; it’s not that Akin says it. It’s that you extrapolate from their statements to reach your own conclusion distinct from theirs.

Thank you.
 
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