G
Greg_McPherran
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**The created cause is subordinated to the Divine, in such a manner, however, that its own causality is not abrogated **
**The created cause is subordinated to the Divine, in such a manner, however, that its own causality is not abrogated **
3. The Relationship of the Divine Will to Evil
a) Physical Evil
God does not (per se) desire physical evil, for example, suffering, illness, death, that is not for the sake of the evil or as an aim. Wis. I, 13 et seq.: “For God has not made death: neither hath He pleasure in the destruction of the living For He created all things that they might be.” However, God wills physical evil, natural evil as well as punitive evil, per accidens, that is, as a means to a higher end of the physical order (for example, for punishment or for moral enlightenment). Ecclus. 11, 14: “Good things and evil, life and death, poverty and riches are from God.” Cf. Ecclus. 39, 35 et seq.; Am. 3,6.
b) Moral Evil
Moral evil, that is, sin, which according to its nature is a revolt against God, is willed by God neither per se nor per accidens, that is neither as an end nor as a means to an end. The Council of Trent has condemned as heretical the contrary doctrine of Calvin D 816, cf. Ps. 5,5; “Thou are not a God that willest iniquity.” God simply permits sin (permissive solum; D 816), because He has consideration for man’s freedom (Ecclus. 15, 15 et seq.), and because He possesses the wisdom and the power to cause good to arise from evil. Gn. 50, 20; “Ye thought evil against me, but God turned it into good.” Cf. Augustine, Enchiridion II. In the final end, moral evil will serve the supreme aim of the world, the glorification of God, in as much as it reveals His mercy in forgiving and His justice in punishing.
When Holy Writ says that God hardens man in evil (Ex. 4, 21; Rom 9,18) the intention is not to represent God as the proper originator of sin. The hardening is a punishment which consists in the withdrawal of grace. Cf. St. Augustine, In Ioan. tr. 53, 6: “God blinds and hardens in such a fashion, that He deserts and does not help” (Ott, ibid., pg 45-46)
Why do you believe God didn’t? Grace is not irresistible. You sorta presume it to be irresistible by the question that you ask. You seem to assume that since Eve sinned, God didn’t give her the grace to choose good. That’s an incorrect assumption, according to Catholic theology.Why did not God give Eve the grace to choose rightly?
I dare say - wrong! This is where I disagree.Grace is not irresistible.
Then I’d dare say your views are heretical, as your thesis is contrary to infallible dogmas of the Catholic Church.I dare say - wrong! This is where I disagree.
The Human Will remains free under the influence of efficacious grace, which is not irresistible. (de fide**) **
The Council of Trent declared against the reformers: If any on says that man’s free will, moved and awakened by God, does in no manner co-operate when it assents to God, Who excited and calls it, thereby disposing and preparing itself to receive the grace of justification; and (if any one says) that it cannot dissent if it wishes, but that, like some inanimate thing, it does nothing whatever, and only remains passive, let him be anathema. D 814.
Innocent X condemned as heretical the following proposition of Cornelius Jansen: “In the condition of fallen nature interior grace is never resisted.” D 1093, cf. D 797, 815 et seq., 1094 et seq.
Holy Scripture stresses both the human factor of the freedom of the will, and the Divine factor of grace. The numerous admonishments to penance and to good works presuppose that grace does not abrogate the freedom of the will. The freedom of the will as against grace is expressly affirmed in Dt. 30, 19; Ecclus. 15, 18; 31, 10; Mt 23, 37 : “How often would I have gathered together thy children, and thou wouldst not:” Acts 7,15 : “You always resist the Holy Ghost.” The co-operation of grace and free will is stressed by St. Paul. 1 Cor 15, 10: “By the grace of God I am what I am, and His grace towards me has not been void, but I have laboured more abundantly than all they. Yet not I but the grace of God with me” (…). Cf. 2 Cor. 6, 1 ; Phil. 2, 12 et seq.
St. Augustine, to whom the opponents of this doctrine appeal, never denied the freedom of the will in relation to grace. In defense of the freedom of the will he wrote, in the year 426 or 427, the work, De gratia et libero arbitrio, in which he seeks to instruct and to appease those, “who belive that free will is denied, if grace is defended, and who so defend free will, that they deny grace and maintain that grace is given according to our merits” (1,1) Justification is not only a work of grace, but at the same time a work of the free will: “He who created thee without thy help does not justify thee without thy help” (Sermo 169, 11, 13). When St. Augustine comments that we necessarily do that which pleases us more (… Expositio ep. ad Gal. 49), he is not thinking of a superior good or evil pleasure, which precedes and determines the decision of the will, as the Jansenists declare, but of a superior pleasure which is included int eh decision of the will.
The freedom of the will under the influence of grace is the necessary presupposition for the meritoriousness of good works.
(Ott, ibid., 246-247)
Hi Dave,Greg,Then I’d dare say your views are heretical, as your thesis is contrary to infallible dogmas of the Catholic Church.
Either you accept private interpretation of Scripture as your rule of faith (Protestant), or you submit to the teachings of the Catholic Church regarding the authentic interpretation of Scripture and Tradition, even if you as of yet do not understand them. Which will it be?
Observe,
Then your speculative theological opinions ought to be bound within the dogmatic framework of the Church. There may not be a satisfactory explanation. Yet, as I said earlier, if it is your purpose to eradicate all the mystery from our holy religion, you’ll surely be disappointed.I already stated that I accept.
Because this proposition, called Universalism, was also condemned by the Church.How do we know for sure that God does not have mercy on all humans and everyone goes to heaven? I.e. How do we know for sure that anyone goes to hell? How do we know that God in His infinite mercy does not allow all to Heaven?
I agree that the correct answer is not fully understood. However, the wrong answers are with infallible certainty, rejected by the Church.… the Fourth Lateran Council (1215) declares: “Those (the rejected) will receive a perpetual punishment with the devil.” D 429. Cf. D 40, 835, 840. A Synod at constantinople (543) rejected the Apocatastasis [universal restoration] of Origen. D 211.
(Ott, ibid., 481)