How much consensus is there among the literary genre lovers as to which events in the bible actually happened and which are literary genres?
Your questions, in the manner that you have worded them are difficult to address because they are rhetorical, and also show your misunderstanding what is meant by “literary genre”.
Your words, quoted above, reveal that you have created a false distinction or false dichotomy between ‘biblical events that actually happened (historical)’ and “literary genre”.
So, you should first understand what is meant by “literary genre”. That should be easy enough for you to do online. After you understand what the term means, then re-phrase your questions in light of a proper use of the term. It’s not that I don’t know what you are asking, its just that I would like to avoid any unnecessary ambiguity and miscommunication related to improper use of terms.
Sometimes I make the mistake of assuming that everyone is familiar with terms I frequently use. This is my fault. However, instead of just posting a definition this time, I would like people to research the meaning of “literary genre” for themselves. And also compare the term with “literary form”.
Similar problems arise with the use of the word “myth”. We commonly use that word to mean something that is not true. For example, someone might say that the legends of Big Foot are myths, meaning they are not true (No offense is intended here to anyone who believes in the existence of Big Foot. I respect your beliefs. lol).
On the other hand, in ancient literature and story telling, “myth” has a different meaning. An ancient Near Eastern myth, or elements in it, may be true or false, according to the questions we ask. But truth or falsity does not pertain to the definition of “myth”. Myths are first, stories about the gods, stories in which the gods are *the *actors. This is so in cultures that are polytheistic. Big Foot legends are not myths in this sense of the term, because they are not stories featuring god(s) as the actor.
However, despite what many cultural anthropologist may believe, the world’s most ancient religion is monotheistic. Likewise, there are myths proper to monotheism. Monotheism *returned, *and eventually replaced the pre-dominance of polytheism. This was due to the influence of the Church.
So, historically, man went from being monotheistic to polytheistic and then back to monotheistic. Each theology, monotheistic and polytheistic has its myths. According to the meaning of “myth”, as I am using the term here, atheism has no myths proper to it because atheism does not believe in God or gods. In other words, since atheism is a completely false ideology, it has no myths.
Of course, one may disagree with my use of the term “myth”. In that case, for the sake of discussion, we would have to agree on a definition of the term we are using. Likewise, we need to agree on the meaning of “literary genre” before meaningful discussion can take place.
itinerant1 :tiphat: