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rod_of_iron
Guest
Andrew Larkoski:
Andrew Larkoski:
But let’s assume that the word, “household”, does mean every human in the house. Can you show me in either of your examples that the households had any little children in them? From the contexts around those quoted verses, there is no mention of children being part of those households. Therefore, you are basing your argument on assumption. You cannot establish facts on assumption or speculation.
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Interesting. How many infants have you witnessed in the act of repenting before they are baptized? Infants do not speak yet, especially if they are only a week or two old. Peter declare that repentance is necessary before baptism takes place. How would you know if an infant was repenting? What would the infant be repenting of? Being born? It is not the infants fault that he or she was born. When Peter speaks of the promise being made to the children of the ones he was speaking to, he was not saying that the children needed to be baptized as children. Instead, Peter was declaring to them that his promise was not just for their generation alone, but for all generations after that, including their children’s generation. This is obvious when Peter includes the phrase, “whomever the Lord our God will call.”Acts 2:38-9: Peter (said) to them, “Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the holy Spirit. For the promise is made to you and to your children and to all those far off, whomever the Lord our God will call.” Again, the Cross saves children, also.
Andrew Larkoski:
You can’t use a 21st century understanding of the word, “household”, to argue this point. Who was considered to be a part of a household in the first century? Were children included when referring to the household? If you believe they were, prove it. Since children and wives may have been seen as subordinate or even as property, can we say without a shadow of a doubt that the word, “household”, would refer to them?Whole houses were often baptized, as in Acts 16:15: “After she and her household had been baptized . . .” meaning too the children. Again, in Acts 16:33: [H]e and all his family were baptized at once," and in 1 Cor. 1:16: “I baptized the household of Stephanas also . . .” Clearly, Scripture does not forbid infant baptism (the necessity of infant salvation), but instead offers us many examples of entire households receiving God’s forgiveness.
But let’s assume that the word, “household”, does mean every human in the house. Can you show me in either of your examples that the households had any little children in them? From the contexts around those quoted verses, there is no mention of children being part of those households. Therefore, you are basing your argument on assumption. You cannot establish facts on assumption or speculation.
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