The Book Which is Most being read:Qur'an

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Doesn’t the royal “We” imply the monarch speaks for themselves and their country?
I don’t think so. I think the plural itself connotes respect, majesty, superiority, etc. Like in French, one would address one’s equals as tu, and one’s individual superiors (the President, the mayor, the bishop) as vous.
 
Yes Jesus performed many miracles and also Muhammad did too. One of them is Miraj. The Miraj is evidence of that Muhammad had received all attributes at most high level.
Muhammad’s night flight? There is no evidence supporting muhammad’s claim that he flew a winged animal that is “bigger than the donkey but smaller than the mule” to a mosque in Jerusalem that did not exist, and then to heaven and back to Mecca, by morning. Also there are no witnesses to this.

How can this be a miracle? Because its in the quran?
 
Muhammad’s night flight? There is no evidence supporting muhammad’s claim that he flew a winged animal that is “bigger than the donkey but smaller than the mule” to a mosque in Jerusalem that did not exist, and then to heaven and back to Mecca, by morning. Also there are no witnesses to this.

How can this be a miracle? Because its in the quran?
Both in Qur’an and Hadiths and details are in Hadiths.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Isra_and_Mi%27raj

and also

questionsonislam.com/article/miracle-isra-night-journey-and-miraj-ascension
 
The hadiths were written 150-200+ years later after muhammads death. Which would mean the night flight was witnessed by no one.

But lets take
Hadith 4:585 Narrated Abu Dhar:

I said, “O Allah’s Apostle! Which mosque was first built on the surface of the earth?” He said, “Al-Masjid-ul-,Haram (in Mecca).” I said, “Which was built next?” He replied “The mosque of Al-Aqsa ( in Jerusalem) .” I said, “What was the period of construction between the two?” He said, “Forty years.” …"

The year of muhammad’s night flight was in 620, this would date the al-aqsa mosque at least 580. Muhammad would of been 10 years old at the time the mosque. Would it mean that muhammad is not the founder of islam.

It took over a month round trip to travel from Mecca to Jerusalem by camel. But the “buraq”, traveled a similar distance in a matter of minutes. No such creature has ever been shown to be real and it seems to only exist in legend and mythology.
 
I find this hard to believe because in verses such as 66:22 of the quran
"And [the example of] Mary, the daughter of 'Imran, who guarded her chastity, so We blew into [her garment] through Our angel, and she believed in the words of her Lord and His scriptures and was of the devoutly obedient.

Who is the “Our” in the above verse? It cannot be the angels because it says “Our angel”. Nor is the “We” an angel

Also in 45:6
“These are the verses of Allah which We recite to you in truth. Then in what statement after Allah and His verses will they believe?”

Who would the “We” be in the above verse? Since its the “We” that’s speaking of allah. The Royal We doesn’t imply
The word is not angel but spirit. Here original text. It said “ruh” and ruh is translated as spirit.
Code:
  وَمَرْيَمَ ابْنَتَ عِمْرٰنَ الَّت۪ٓي اَحْصَنَتْ فَرْجَهَا فَنَفَخْنَا ف۪يهِ مِنْ** رُوحِنَا** وَصَدَّقَتْ بِكَلِمَاتِ رَبِّهَا وَكُتُبِه۪ وَكَانَتْ مِنَ الْقَانِت۪ينَ
12- And Mary, daughter of 'Imran, whose body was chaste, therefor We breathed therein something of Our Spirit. And she put faith in the words of her Lord and His scriptures, and was of the obedient. At-tahrim(66)

I explained why Qur’an use “we” instead of “I” in post #457.

For actions through which God use means and intermediaries or to point witness of those it is said “we” but for personality of God it is said “I”. And do not forget one-third of Qur’an is about Tawhid which means God is one and unique by attributes, actions, substance or relations etc.
 
The hadiths were written 150-200+ years later after muhammads death. Which would mean the night flight was witnessed by no one.

But lets take
Hadith 4:585 Narrated Abu Dhar:

I said, “O Allah’s Apostle! Which mosque was first built on the surface of the earth?” He said, “Al-Masjid-ul-,Haram (in Mecca).” I said, “Which was built next?” He replied “The mosque of Al-Aqsa ( in Jerusalem) .” I said, “What was the period of construction between the two?” He said, “Forty years.” …"

The year of muhammad’s night flight was in 620, this would date the al-aqsa mosque at least 580. Muhammad would of been 10 years old at the time the mosque. Would it mean that muhammad is not the founder of islam.

It took over a month round trip to travel from Mecca to Jerusalem by camel. But the “buraq”, traveled a similar distance in a matter of minutes. No such creature has ever been shown to be real and it seems to only exist in legend and mythology.
Hadiths were not written after 150-200 years but Hadiths were compiled in that times. Otherwise Hadiths had been written from very initially by Sahabas. That question may be raised why Hadiths were not written in the beginning? A: Because Muslims had apprehension and misgiving that texts of Hadiths could confuse with verses.

I do not understand the reason you express. Masjid-ul Haram was not built upon times of Muhammad. Abraham and Ishmael had restored Masjid. You think as if the mosques were built during times of Muhammad but the date of building are not known perhaps angels had built before Adam.

And for Buraq! God has many creatures whom we do not know.
 
I don’t think so. I think the plural itself connotes respect, majesty, superiority, etc. Like in French, one would address one’s equals as tu, and one’s individual superiors (the President, the mayor, the bishop) as vous.
I’m not sure your are correct or me for that matter. I did see the Latin indicates majesty. When I took French I was taught tu was used for family, a child and close friends and vous was used in all other instances. I was never taught to use tu for equals but for intimates.
 
The word is not angel but spirit. Here original text. It said “ruh” and ruh is translated as spirit.
Code:
  وَمَرْيَمَ ابْنَتَ عِمْرٰنَ الَّت۪ٓي اَحْصَنَتْ فَرْجَهَا فَنَفَخْنَا ف۪يهِ مِنْ** رُوحِنَا** وَصَدَّقَتْ بِكَلِمَاتِ رَبِّهَا وَكُتُبِه۪ وَكَانَتْ مِنَ الْقَانِت۪ينَ
12- And Mary, daughter of 'Imran, whose body was chaste, therefor We breathed therein something of Our Spirit. And she put faith in the words of her Lord and His scriptures, and was of the obedient. At-tahrim(66)

I explained why Qur’an use “we” instead of “I” in post #457.

For actions through which God use means and intermediaries or to point witness of those it is said “we” but for personality of God it is said “I”. And do not forget one-third of Qur’an is about Tawhid which means God is one and unique by attributes, actions, substance or relations etc.
Comment #457
Hımm. There are also verses in OT in which God do not say “I” but “we”. Islamic scholars interpret in that way: About one of three part(1/3) of Qur’an is about Tawhid which mean God is one and unique. So there should be another interpretation of such verses in which God say “we”.
So the Old Testament is not corrupted in this case? Whenever the quran uses the Old and New Testaments its some how not corrupted.
“Islamic scholars interpret in that way” So islam has no official doctrine on that matter?
 
The word is not angel but spirit. Here original text. It said “ruh” and ruh is translated as spirit.
Code:
  وَمَرْيَمَ ابْنَتَ عِمْرٰنَ الَّت۪ٓي اَحْصَنَتْ فَرْجَهَا فَنَفَخْنَا ف۪يهِ مِنْ** رُوحِنَا** وَصَدَّقَتْ بِكَلِمَاتِ رَبِّهَا وَكُتُبِه۪ وَكَانَتْ مِنَ الْقَانِت۪ينَ
12-** And Mary, daughter of 'Imran,** whose body was chaste, therefor We breathed therein something of Our Spirit. And she put faith in the words of her Lord and His scriptures, and was of the obedient. At-tahrim(66)

I explained why Qur’an use “we” instead of “I” in post #457.

For actions through which God use means and intermediaries or to point witness of those it is said “we” but for personality of God it is said “I”. And do not forget one-third of Qur’an is about Tawhid which means God is one and unique by attributes, actions, substance or relations etc.
Amram (which is Arabicized to Imran) is the husband of Jochebed, and their children were Miriam, Aaron, and Moses. The Blessed Mother Mary’s parents were Saint Anne and Saint Joachim.
 
Hasantas, you’ve still haven’t given answers to my old question repeatedly asked. Why skip verses by Jesus while he talking and which Bible Muslims use to support the Quran.

If I don’t receive any response then it is 100% clear to me Muslims have no answers to these serious questions about Jesus.

Peace be with you.

MJ
 
Amram (which is Arabicized to Imran) is the husband of Jochebed, and their children were Miriam, Aaron, and Moses. The Blessed Mother Mary’s parents were Saint Anne and Saint Joachim.
Is there any accurate knowledge about parents of Mary in Bbile? No. So you should listen to Qur’an to learn much about Jesus. And it is nonsense to claim that God had confused the name of Moses’s father wtih Mary’s if we consider the time between them! You are disposed to consider Qur’an as merely words of Muhammad. But you must first disprove thousand evidences which prove that Qur’an is directly word of God.

Yet you have not any correct knowledge about parents of Mary so it is no useful to ignore Qur’an.
 
Hasantas, you’ve still haven’t given answers to my old question repeatedly asked. Why skip verses by Jesus while he talking and which Bible Muslims use to support the Quran.

If I don’t receive any response then it is 100% clear to me Muslims have no answers to these serious questions about Jesus.

Peace be with you.

MJ
As I said before why should I not recite from Jesus? And for Bible… Muslims believe in that the peresent Gospels are not original but that does not mean they are totaly false. And Muslims know that there are revelation into Gospels.
 
As I said before why should I not recite from Jesus? And for Bible… Muslims believe in that the peresent Gospels are not original but that does not mean they are totaly false. And Muslims know that there are revelation into Gospels.
I never said you can’t recite. But you take his words partly, right? So why is that? Very basic question. Not totally false is not an answer. That’s very weak.

And so which Bible? Official Bible? Or Gospels. Ask your Imam if you have no idea and if you have no idea there is no shame in admitting it.

Peace be with you.

MJ
 
Is there any accurate knowledge about parents of Mary in Bbile? No. So you should listen to Qur’an to learn much about Jesus. And it is nonsense to claim that God had confused the name of Moses’s father wtih Mary’s if we consider the time between them! You are disposed to consider Qur’an as merely words of Muhammad. But you must first disprove thousand evidences which prove that Qur’an is directly word of God.

Yet you have not any correct knowledge about parents of Mary so it is no useful to ignore Qur’an.
Actually hasantas, Saint Anne (mother of the Virgin Mary) Anne’s name and that of her husband Joachim are in the New Testament apocrypha, of which the Protoevangelium of James written

The Gospel of James, also known as the Infancy Gospel of James or the Protoevangelium of James, is an apocryphal Gospel probably written about AD 145, which expands backward in time the infancy stories contained in the Gospels of Matthew and Luke, and presents a narrative concerning the birth and upbringing of Mary herself. It is the oldest source to assert the virginity of Mary not only prior to but during (and after) the birth of Jesus

We know for certain Saint Anne’s husband name is Joachim…not “Imran”

Why do you ignore this fact?
 
Actually hasantas, Saint Anne (mother of the Virgin Mary) Anne’s name and that of her husband Joachim are in the New Testament apocrypha, of which the Protoevangelium of James written

The Gospel of James, also known as the Infancy Gospel of James or the Protoevangelium of James, is an apocryphal Gospel probably written about AD 145, which expands backward in time the infancy stories contained in the Gospels of Matthew and Luke, and presents a narrative concerning the birth and upbringing of Mary herself. It is the oldest source to assert the virginity of Mary not only prior to but during (and after) the birth of Jesus

We know for certain Saint Anne’s husband name is Joachim…not “Imran”

Why do you ignore this fact?
Do you regard an apocrypha Gospel totaly true?
 
Do you regard an apocrypha Gospel totaly true?
Why does this matter when there Is no denying Jesus as Lord God in this apochrypha?

Meanwhile have asked your imam yet which are the official Bible or Gospels used by Islam?

Peace be with you.

MJ
 
Do you regard an apocrypha Gospel totaly true?
Yes I do!! Especially that over the quran. Considering the quranic version is 600+ years after the birth of Mary.

But in the quran 19:27-30
27 Then she brought him to her people, carrying him. They said, “O Mary, you have certainly done a thing unprecedented.
28 O sister of Aaron, your father was not a man of evil, nor was your mother unchaste.”
29 So she pointed to him. They said, “How can we speak to one who is in the cradle a child?”
30 [Jesus] said, "Indeed, I am the servant of Allah . He has given me the Scripture and made me a prophet.

The above indicates that the quran inexplicitely implies that Moses was the uncle of Jesus, which is physically impossible since they lived about 1400 years apart (according to Christian and non-Christian theologians).
 
Why does this matter when there Is no denying Jesus as Lord God in this apochrypha?

Meanwhile have asked your imam yet which are the official Bible or Gospels used by Islam?

Peace be with you.

MJ
I use which all Christians do.
 
Yes I do!! Especially that over the quran. Considering the quranic version is 600+ years after the birth of Mary.

But in the quran 19:27-30
27 Then she brought him to her people, carrying him. They said, “O Mary, you have certainly done a thing unprecedented.
28 O sister of Aaron, your father was not a man of evil, nor was your mother unchaste.”
29 So she pointed to him. They said, “How can we speak to one who is in the cradle a child?”
30 [Jesus] said, "Indeed, I am the servant of Allah . He has given me the Scripture and made me a prophet.

The above indicates that the quran inexplicitely implies that Moses was the uncle of Jesus, which is physically impossible since they lived about 1400 years apart (according to Christian and non-Christian theologians).
As I said before it is nonsense to claim that God confuse time of Moses and Jesus. Is there any thing about Moses in the verses? No. So why do you think that in that way? Because of similarity of names?

Though if we think Muhammad had taken from Bible yet it is not acceptable argument for Qur’an if we consider all facts of Qur’an.
 
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