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zerinus
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I had a quick look. Didn’t have time to read it all. But that thread also focuses on the “full of grace” translation, which as I have shown here is incorrect.
zerinus
I had a quick look. Didn’t have time to read it all. But that thread also focuses on the “full of grace” translation, which as I have shown here is incorrect.

A Mormon that believes “if it isn’t in the bible it is false.” Very Interesting.Thank you. Somebody has finally admitted that Transubstantiation is false! Great! Half the battle one!
Does this mean Zerinus doesn’t know what he was talking about?Thank you again. Can you define for me more precisely what the “Real Presence” is; and how and in what manner Christ is “Really Present” in the Sacrament of the Eucharist?
making categorical assertions doesn’t really mean anything unless you can back it up with sound arguments.
Just Read his blog - MY kingdom for some Gold PlatesA Mormon that believes “if it isn’t in the bible it is false.” Very Interesting.
Again, That isn’t what Zerinus’ article is about.
Does this mean Zerinus doesn’t know what he was talking about?
I know of no threads. Are to show us some?
zerinus
The explanation of the word that is insufficiently translated as “highly favoured” is in this thread: forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=232970
the word in the original Greek is analyzed beginning with post #87.
If that is the best that you can do, then I guess we don’t have a lot left to talk about. Thanks for admitting that Transubstantiation is wrong though. That is a step forward I guess.A Mormon that believes “if it isn’t in the bible it is false.” Very Interesting.
Again, That isn’t what Zerinus’ article is about.
Does this mean Zerinus doesn’t know what he was talking about?
Okay, I just checked. The phrase “full of grace” in the salutation to Mary is derived from the incorrect translation of the Latin Vulgate, not the original Greek. The original Greek word means “highly favored”. It doesn’t mean “full of grace”. This is attested by the fact that all modern translations of the Bible, including Catholic ones, render it “highly favored,” not “full of grace”. You are trying to persuade me that all the modern translations of the Bible are wrong, including Catholic ones, and only the Latin Vulgate made by Jerome in the 4th century is correct. Okay, I am not a Latin or a Greek scholar; but I don’t buy that. The general consensus of the vast majority of the experts is different. That argument doesn’t cut it with me I am afraid.The explanation of the word that is insufficiently translated as “highly favoured” is in this thread: forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=232970
the word in the original Greek is analyzed beginning with post #87.
OK. Find anyone else in scripture that is “highly favored”. See, we believe that Christ always existed as the begotten, not created, Son of God, and needed a perfect vessel to bring forth. This makes no sense to you, who believe Christ is a simple creation that has been somehow elevated. Right?.My Bible reads: “Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women”. I don’t know where you got “grace” from.
zerinus
It is unclear to me why you would ask for the citation and then not read it. I won’t waste my time that way again.Okay, I just checked. The phrase “full of grace” in the salutation to Mary is derived from the incorrect translation of the Latin Vulgate, not the original Greek. The original Greek word means “highly favored”. It doesn’t mean “full of grace”. This is attested by the fact that all modern translations of the Bible, including Catholic ones, render it “highly favored,” not “full of grace”. You are trying to persuade me that all the modern translations of the Bible are wrong, including Catholic ones, and only the Latin Vulgate made by Jerome in the 4th century is correct. Okay, I am not a Latin or a Greek scholar; but I don’t buy that. The general consensus of the vast majority of the experts is different. That argument doesn’t cut it with me I am afraid.
zerinus
Of course she is “highly favored”. She was chosen to be the earthly mother of the Son of God. I can’t think of a greater “favor” than that “among women”. But that is a far cry from saying that she was “immaculately conceived”. No way!OK. Find anyone else in scripture that is “highly favored”. See, we believe that Christ always existed as the begotten, not created, Son of God, and needed a perfect vessel to bring forth. This makes no sense to you, who believe Christ is a simple creation that has been somehow elevated. Right?.
The problem for Zerinus, and we are wandering ever more far away from the topic, in understanding the Immaculate Conception of Mary may have, at its root, the understanding of the Godhead. Mormons do not view Jesus the same way that Christians do, and Mormons believe in eternal progression. For the origins of the humanity of Jesus to be rooted in sin may make sense to Mormons when you consider how they view Jesus to begin with.Of course she is “highly favored”. She was chosen to be the earthly mother of the Son of God. I can’t think of a greater “favor” than that “among women”. But that is a far cry from saying that she was “immaculately conceived”. No way!
zerinus
That is when Tradition comes in something you lack since you dont have apostolic succession. remember not everything was written in the SS. there was also many Oral information passed on down to the successores.Of course she is “highly favored”. She was chosen to be the earthly mother of the Son of God. I can’t think of a greater “favor” than that “among women”. But that is a far cry from saying that she was “immaculately conceived”. No way!
zerinus
Mormons, including Zerinus, believe that what we call Sacred Tradition, is what they call the “apostasy”. Despite the fact that there is absolutely no evidence whatsoever that an apostasy ever occurred, they believe that the Church founded by Jesus was basically gone from the earth within a very short time and what remained and survived was apostate. Hence, any “tradition” is viewed as apostate tradition and is therefore rejected.That is when Tradition comes in something you lack since you dont have apostolic succession. remember not everything was written in the SS. there was also many Oral information passed on down to the successores.
That is what make the CC in rome so distinct from all others.Mormons, including Zerinus, believe that what we call Sacred Tradition, is what they call the “apostasy”. Despite the fact that there is absolutely no evidence whatsoever that an apostasy ever occurred, they believe that the Church founded by Jesus was basically gone from the earth within a very short time and what remained and survived was apostate. Hence, any “tradition” is viewed as apostate tradition and is therefore rejected.
When you consider that Joseph Smith was founding a new religion, in rejection of all others, there would have to be a mechanism for rejecting/ignoring nearly 2000 years of Christian development, so this idea of an apostasy would have to be part of the organization of the LDS church.
Does this make him the successor of St Peter?I am sure it was. Did you know that LDS President Gordon B. Hinckley had been to the White House on several occasions, met with several past Presidents of the US, and in 2004 he was awarded the Presidential Medal of Freedom (the nations highest civilian honor) by President George W. Bush?
medaloffreedom.com/GordonHinckley.htm
newsroom.lds.org/ldsnewsroom/eng/news-releases-stories/president-gordon-b-hinckley-awarded-presidential-medal-of-freedom
zerinus
No - He is just another Dipwad - The Apostlic succession is in RomeDoes this make him the successor of St Peter?