The moral case for Polygamy

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Assumption. We have no reason to assume that there is any punishing in the afterlife. The Catholic view is that we cannot know or even assume that there is anyone specific in hell. So this assumption of deferred punishing is just empty speculation.
The entire idea of purgatory is deferred punishment that wasn’t completed in life. And just because we don’t know if any individual is in hell doesn’t mean it’s not dogma that everyone will be appropriately punished as justice requires.
 
The Catholic Church has given an authoritative moral teaching on divorce or polygamy. You don’t need a verse-by-versr annotated Bible to know how verses on those topics must not be interpreted.
Unfortunately for you, there is no evidence that the church is the final authority. The church claims that Jesus gave it the authority. And when one asks for evidence, the church (or rather the members of the church!) will point to the Bible (compiled by the church), the “sacred” tradition (maintained by the church) and the magisterium (declared by the church). So if we get rid of the “fluff”, it boils down to: “the church is the final authority, because the church says so”. 🙂
And this really just demonstrates a rather Protestant notion of scripture, if I may say so. You want to interpret scripture, you look at the Church’s authoritative moral teachings, you read the Church Fathers, you read the abundant Catholic literature on the topic. You listen and consult with your priest and bishop and look at the college of bishops in communion with Rome.
You just reinforced what I said above. Why should the non-Catholics accept what the church says?
There’s no need to dry up scripture with a once-for-all definitive analysis of every line.
There is for non-Catholics.
That’s just not the Catholic approach to scripture.
Of course not. It allows the different interpreters to play hide-and-seek. 🙂
The entire idea of purgatory is deferred punishment that wasn’t completed in life. And just because we don’t know if any individual is in hell doesn’t mean it’s not dogma that everyone will be appropriately punished as justice requires.
There is no evidence for the purgatory. Punishment is only justified if the punished person can LEARN from her mistakes. If she cannot, then the punishment is pure, unadulterated revenge. (“Vengeance is mine says the Lord.” - Romans 12:19)
 
On another thread, PRmerger asked me to provide evidence that God accepted polygamy as a moral practice. This thread will be devoted just to that topic. I’ll present two lines of evidence, the first involves God facilitating polygamous relationships and the second explaining that God never punished polygamists for adultery.

Evidence #1:
Genesis 29:30-33 shows God being concerned about ONE man not loving TWO wives. God acts on this concern by helping the two wives become impregnated by the ONE and same man.

Now remember, all that God does is morally good so His concerns and actions not only show what he wants or accepts, but also counts towards what’s morally good. The logical implications of Genesis 29:30-33 is that it’s moral for ONE man to love and impregnate TWO women.

Evidence #2:
The 10 commandments clearly list ‘adultery’ is being a sin, something which man is not to do. The rules on adultery were enforced before (in Genesis) and after the law was given to Moses (Exodus and beyond). So there was never a concession for adultery.

If polygamy was wrong it would be the sin of adultery. Yet not one man who married multiple unmarried woman was judged to be an adulterer. Therefore, polygamy was not a sin.

Conclusion:
Both lines of evidence not only show that polygamy was not a sin, but also that God directly intervened in such relationships to facilitate them rather than breaking them up or punishing them.
Polygamy was tolerated in ancient times because the mortality of young men was so high and the idea was to allow families to be taken care of.

It wasn’t because someone had a grievance on Facebook and wanted to virtual in front of all of their “friends” or other such reasons used to justify breaks from the nuclear family today.

Also, today polygamy is correlated to child sex abuse and incest.
 
Vera_Ljuba;14663608]Unfortunately for you, there is no evidence that the church is the final authority. The church claims that Jesus gave it the authority. And when one asks for evidence, the church (or rather the members of the church!) will point to the Bible (compiled by the church), the “sacred” tradition (maintained by the church) and the magisterium (declared by the church). So if we get rid of the “fluff”, it boils down to: “the church is the final authority, because the church says so”. 🙂
If you’ve read my posts on the News Forums, you’d know that I don’t like appeal to authority. “Because we or the Bible say so” is often a failed argument in the information age and one big reason why so-called gay “marriage” is legal namely because Catholics allowed Protestants to be the leading voice in the culture on that and a myriad of issues.

In any case, you can count on two hands how many times I’ve quoted the Bible, the Popes and the catechism in over 21,000 posts and 5+ years on here.
You just reinforced what I said above. Why should the non-Catholics accept what the church says?
Catholicism is about the Truth. There’s a reason why other religions today are falling apart on the seams or have all kinds of internal problems.
There is no evidence for the purgatory. Punishment is only justified if the punished person can LEARN from her mistakes. If she cannot, then the punishment is pure, unadulterated revenge. (“Vengeance is mine says the Lord.” - Romans 12:19)
It does exist and that is a very weak argument as it uses the same appeal to authority you were against earlier in the conversation.
 
If you’ve read my posts on the News Forums, you’d know that I don’t like appeal to authority.
I don’t remember ever having read any of your posts, especially since I almost never visit the News Forums.
Catholicism is about the Truth. There’s a reason why other religions today are falling apart on the seams or have all kinds of internal problems.
In my vocabulary there is no capitalized “the Truth”. And Catholicism does not do too well either. Rome keeps complaining about the decreasing attendance; especially in Europe. The number of the so-called Cafeteria Catholics (or CINO-s) is increasing, while the ultra-orthodox population is decreasing. There is also a shortage in the priesthood. (Oh, and the population of Muslims seems to be growing.)
It does exist and that is a very weak argument as it uses the same appeal to authority you were against earlier in the conversation.
I have no idea what you mean by appeal to authority. All I did was pointing out that there is no evidence for the purgatory, and also the well-known, universally accepted principle that the only acceptable reason for punishment is to teach better behavior. Since the purgatory happens after death, when people lose their opportunity to learn, it is obvious that the events in the purgatory - whatever they may be - cannot serve the purpose of teaching better behavior. You don’t get a second chance in real life to have a suitably modified behavior after having spent some unspecified time in the fire.

Of course, if you have some REAL evidence for the purgatory, I will be glad to check it out. But you need to remember that “he said, she said” does not constitute “evidence” in my world, so don’t waste your time, unless you have something real evidence.
 
😃

I am smiling here from ear to ear, enjoying the irony.

Here I am, simply playing the atheist and saying the equivalent of “I won’t believe in God until you show me some scientific evidence of His existence!”

That is, “I won’t believe God endorsed polygamy until you show me some Scriptural evidence that He endorsed polygamy!”

And here you are saying, “It doesn’t have to say it explicitly in the Bible!”

Are you willing to acknowledge the validity of the multitude proofs for God’s existence?

If so, then I might be willing to loosen my criterion for proof of God’s endorsement of polygamy.

Otherwise, I will be waiting for a Bible verse (or 2) that says, “And thus God commanded men to marry multiple women, and declared this to be good!”
I value good evidence but I also value logic and logic counts towards truth. In other words, we can logically deduce a conclusion that God is okay with polygamy based on the EVIDENCE or facts!! The logic here is quite simple:

Premise 1: God is all-good.
Premise 2: God wanted and helped ONE man love and impregnate TWO women (Genesis 29:30-33)

Conclusion: Therefore, it’s morally good for men to love more than one woman and impregnate them (another way of referring to polygamy and saying that it’s okay, no different than how some take two becoming one flesh to mean monogamy).
 
I value good evidence but I also value logic and logic counts towards truth. In other words, we can logically deduce a conclusion that God is okay with polygamy based on the EVIDENCE or facts!! The logic here is quite simple:

Premise 1: God is all-good.
Premise 2: God wanted and helped ONE man love and impregnate TWO women (Genesis 29:30-33)

Conclusion: Therefore, it’s morally good for men to love more than one woman and impregnate them (another way of referring to polygamy and saying that it’s okay, no different than how some take two becoming one flesh to mean monogamy).
Morally okay in the Old Testament, but not in the New Testament. In the old Semite culture it was common to have more than one wife, but as we move through the ages into the Greek culture, it was not morally acceptable. As Christians we have a new covenant with God and Jesus is our mouthpiece.
 
On another thread, PRmerger asked me to provide evidence that God accepted polygamy as a moral practice. This thread will be devoted just to that topic. I’ll present two lines of evidence, the first involves God facilitating polygamous relationships and the second explaining that God never punished polygamists for adultery.

Evidence #1:
Genesis 29:30-33 shows God being concerned about ONE man not loving TWO wives. God acts on this concern by helping the two wives become impregnated by the ONE and same man.

Now remember, all that God does is morally good so His concerns and actions not only show what he wants or accepts, but also counts towards what’s morally good. The logical implications of Genesis 29:30-33 is that it’s moral for ONE man to love and impregnate TWO women.

Evidence #2:
The 10 commandments clearly list ‘adultery’ is being a sin, something which man is not to do. The rules on adultery were enforced before (in Genesis) and after the law was given to Moses (Exodus and beyond). So there was never a concession for adultery.

If polygamy was wrong it would be the sin of adultery. Yet not one man who married multiple unmarried woman was judged to be an adulterer. Therefore, polygamy was not a sin.

Conclusion:
Both lines of evidence not only show that polygamy was not a sin, but also that God directly intervened in such relationships to facilitate them rather than breaking them up or punishing them.
Example from the Old Testament where polygamy was was permitted or at least tolerated: Jacob who had two wives, Lia and Rachel, and two concubines, Bala and Zelpha, to bear children for Lia and Rachel. Genesis 30:3, 9, 13.
 
I value good evidence but I also value logic and logic counts towards truth.
Excellent.

Then you should, logically, not be an agnostic.

Unless you can offer some logic that refutes the idea that whatever begins to exist needs a Cause?
 
Excellent.

Then you should, logically, not be an agnostic.

Unless you can offer some logic that refutes the idea that whatever begins to exist needs a Cause?
It really depends on the arguments and counter-arguments. The biblical passages that I cited are empirical evidence in a sense, and the words in those passages are very clear towards my point. The passages show God’s concerns that prompted his actions. And His actions reflect his wants and desires which are supposed to be all-good.

So far you have not addressed my argument.
 
So… what’s morally good is to love (and not ignore) a wife. That’s what’s directly established here.
Genesis 29:30-33 establishes that a man should love his wife, however, if you look at the details closely you’ll notice that it was a man’s second wife. Jacob should’ve only loved Rachel if your monogamy only position was correct, but we see God also wanting Jacob to love Leah, as well.
I think, at best, we see that God isn’t interfering with polygamy in the OT. Yet (and it’ll be interesting to see where you take Mt 19), we see Jesus clearly IDing that marriage is one man and one woman.
Well one topic at a time. Do you accept my arguments that God wanted ONE man to love TWO women and helped the ONE man impregnate them as mentioned in Genesis 29:30-33?
No, I’m not buying that if polygamy is wrong, then it’s adultery, on two counts. First, you’re conflating ‘legality’ with ‘moral goodness’. Polygamy was ‘legal’ in that day. We’re arguing against its morality. Second, adultery is literally having intercourse with another man’s spouse. That’s not what polygamy is.
There can be some differences between legality and morality, but in the Bible and even in societies in general, the two overlap. At least in the Bible, the two concepts should not conflict. This is why we find Christians trying to make laws based off of their moral teachings on marriage, etc.

Interestingly, you cited a definition for adultery which I happen to agree with, but then you failed to explain how polygamy can be a sin when it’s not adultery. Does it make sense to say that it’s not adultery for a woman to sleep with another woman’s husband but yet polygamy is still wrong? What would be the purpose of this one-sided definition of adultery (only when wife sleeps with another person but not when husband does it) if it were not to allow for polyGYNY? I would’ve thought that the Catholic position ws that extramarital affairs done by either spouse would equally count as adultery.
I disagree. You’ve shown that God didn’t punish polygamy. Yet, He deferred punishing all sorts of sins. That doesn’t imply that He approved of them.
I find it shocking that God would punish married women for extramarital affairs, or even punish men for having sex with these married women, but yet not punish anyone for polygamy. Whether it would be called adultery or not, the acts are so nearly identical, that it makes no sense that God would have a problem punishing one but not the other. By nearly identical, I mean the only difference is between a married man who has extramarital affairs with MARRIED woman vs. extramarital affairs with unmarried women.
 
It really depends on the arguments and counter-arguments.
True.
The biblical passages that I cited are empirical evidence in a sense, and the words in those passages are very clear towards my point.
Well, only in the sense that the world itself is empirical evidence for God’s existence.

Would you agree to that?
 
The passages show God’s concerns that prompted his actions. And His actions reflect his wants and desires which are supposed to be all-good.

So far you have not addressed my argument.
What I see in Genesis is God showing mercy on Leah.

How is it that you conclude that God opening the womb of a woman is the same thing as God desiring Jacob to be married to multiple women?
 
Genesis 29:30-33 establishes that a man should love his wife, however, if you look at the details closely you’ll notice that it was a man’s second wife. Jacob should’ve only loved Rachel if your monogamy only position was correct, but we see God also wanting Jacob to love Leah, as well.
Don’t you have this backwards? Jacob should’ve only loved Leah. That’s his first wife.
Well one topic at a time. Do you accept my arguments that God wanted ONE man to love TWO women and helped the ONE man impregnate them as mentioned in Genesis 29:30-33?
No. There is no indication, at all, about what God “wants”.

Unless you have some Scripture verse that says that God wanted Jacob to marry 2 women?
There can be some differences between legality and morality, but in the Bible and even in societies in general, the two overlap.
Yes, this is correct.
At least in the Bible, the two concepts should not conflict.
Why wouldn’t it conflict if the legal laws are declared by man and the moral laws are declared by God? :confused:
I find it shocking that God would punish married women for extramarital affairs, or even punish men for having sex with these married women, but yet not punish anyone for polygamy.
You don’t know whether God did “not punish anyone for polygamy” in the afterlife
 
I don’t think anyone has touched onthis yet.

but, God actually allowed certain sinful things to take place in the OT because of Israel’s “hardness of heart”. basically they were being treated like immature children. God was being quite lenient with them, I know, it’s ironic because the OT seems quite violent

it’s not that it was ok, but he just wasn’t holding them to as high of a standard, Jesus comes and sets this straight.

just think, we don’t hold toddlers to the same standards as adults, do we?

there are certain behaviours that toddlers display which is excusable because they are toddlers, however if a grown person were to act the same way, three is no reason that it would be appropriate
I’ve read the same view on other threads but I don’t find it convincing for 2 reasons (after rereading this thread your views are similar to those in Post #8, post #19, post #23, etc.
)…
  • Besides “divorce”, there is no evidence that polygamy was a concession. It’s simply speculation, at best.
  • God did not merely watch polygamy occur, he also acted to help it progress just as I demonstrated with Genesis 29:30-33.
 
I’ve read the same view on other threads but I don’t find it convincing for 2 reasons:
  • Besides “divorce”, there is no evidence that polygamy was a concession. It’s simply speculation, at best.
We don’t need to speculate, AB. We have the lens of the Church to enlighten our reading of these verses.
  • God did not merely watch polygamy occur, he also acted to help it progress just as I demonstrated with Genesis 29:30-33.
No, AB. God did not “act” to help it progress.
 
As a Catholic, the scriptures are best-read through the lens of the Church that assembled it. Additionally, the Church does have the God-given power to “bind and loose” as the Spirit leads its episcopate.

But in AB’s defense, it certainly seem that early in the story of our spiritual people, polygamy was at least tacitly tolerated by God. If it were a sin in those ancient, nigh mythical days, it must not have been a particularly “big” one, as David and his boy Solomon certainly “loved the ladies” (and David being described as “a man after God’s own heart”).

Again, irrelevant for the Catholic, as the Church has spoken authoritatively on the matter. Polygamy is out. But perhaps there has been some “binding” done on the matter in the last 6000 years?
 
True.
Well, only in the sense that the world itself is empirical evidence for God’s existence.

Would you agree to that?
Sure, it can be used as empirical evidence if you can make the connection. The connection between the Bible and God’s position on polygamy is clear because the Bible is said to be part of God’s message. I should say that I created this thread to discuss a specific topic. I’d like to keep the thread focused on either refuting or supporting my argument for polygamy. Trying to bring up the cosmological argument to show God exists does nothing to refute my argument for polygamy.
 
But in AB’s defense, it certainly seem that early in the story of our spiritual people, polygamy was at least tacitly tolerated by God.
Oh, no one ought deny that. God tolerated a lot of sins in the OT.

In fact, he clearly tolerates a lot of sins today–unless you think God has smote those fathers who kill their daughters in “honor killings” for having the audacity of being raped?

Or strikes dead the husband who sleeps with his wife’s sister?

No. God tolerates this, but this is not to be interpreted as saying, “God endorses and commands these things”.
 
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