M
Mr.Ex_Nihilo
Guest
:banghead:Error # 2
This is another interpretive error of the nonliteralist.
You claim that Paul here is teaching that Gentiles become “spiritual Jews.” But in context Paul is not at all addressing Gentiles.
Who he is addressing is found in Rom. 2:17:Rom. 2:17 “But if you bear the name Jew, and rely upon the Law, and boast in God…”
Nowhere in this passage is he describing or stating that Gentiles become “spiritual Jews” through faith in Christ. He is describing a “true Jew” to Jews.Error # 3
I explained all this in my original post.
Your problem Mr. Ex is that you’re so quick to defend your position that you fail to comprehend what I write. Please focus for a moment.
The Scriptures say that we are fellow citizens with God’s people and members of God’s household.
This is a ‘literal truth’…and not a ‘spiritual truth’.
How on earth can you make the claim Ephesians 2 does not identify the Church as part of Israel?
Where exactly do you draw the line between that which is considered a ‘spiritual language’ and that which is considered merely an ‘allegory’?
I ask because the line which you’ve drawn seems kind of arbitrary and capricious to me, fairly well haphazardly constructed around the mysteries of dispensational eschatology.
For example, when I point toward Melchizedek bringing out the bread & wine toward Abraham in the Hebrew Scriptures (after Abraham defeated God’s enemies) and claim that this literal event prophesied of the Lord Jesus instituting the Eucharist within the New Testament era (before Jesus defeated the devil on the cross), you seem to have no difficulty claiming that I’m ‘allegorizing’ the Old Testament event in order to push the Scriptural record past what the Scriptural record actually intended.
But when you point toward the clear explanation within the Christian Scriptures which explicitly & repeatedly state that the Church is the body of Christ and then proceed to deny that the Old Testament also prophesied about his Church to the extent that the Old Testament prophesied about Christ, you seem to have no difficulty claiming that these passages which speak of the Church being the body of Christ are merely using a ‘spiritual language’ which should not be taken literally.
It is more than fair to ask exactly what the difference is between ‘allegory’ and ‘spiritual language’, because, aside from the important question of whether the Holy Spirit is involved truly involved or not, there appears to be no functional difference to me.
I ask (again) because it appears to me that you are in fact doing exactly what you are repeatedly accusing us of doing.
:dancing::clapping: :dancing: