Jim, don’t quote Sacrosanctum Concilium at me—I know very well what it says. And if you really must, at least READ it first.
Keep reading it until comprehension is achieved. You’ll know that you’ve arrived when you stop citing it for propositions it explicitly repudiates.
you an the Bishops don’t agree, otherwise we’d be hearing the Mass in Latin only. Such is not the case because the Bishops have an understanding of what is needed for the people to participate more fully in the Mass. I leave their actions regarding the liturgy to speak for itself on who understands the document better or not.
Interesting: cite for us, if you would, an episcopal pronouncement that the Mass is to be celebrated wholly in the vernacular. I will not hold my breath. And in the meantime, note that not only does Vatican II repudiate your position, so does the Holy See: Liturgiam Authenticam notes that it is
always licit to celebrate Mass in latin (LA13). So
those bishops—John Paul II, the bishops of the CDW, and the council fathers—don’t share your view that the vernacular is necessary “for the people to participate more fully in the Mass.”
Isn’t it interesting how the Council is the paramount authority for the modern liberal, yet when confronted by what the council actually said, they are forced to hide behind Paul VI’s cappa magna, turning for all the world into quasi-ultramontanists?
Your response is absolutely typical of a certain kind of viewpoint on V2: you take a general statement from one of the documents, abstract from it, and them eliminate the original text in favor of the abstracted “spirit.” Instead of parsing the meaning of “full active participation” (SC41) in the hope of straining from it an “intent” vis-à-vis latin, why don’t you instead read what the document itself says? “Particular law remaining in force, the use of the Latin language is to be preserved in the Latin rites.” (SC36.)
Quite the opposite. However, parsing out the statement that Latin should be perserved is what those who advocated for Latin do.
Quite the opposite"? What is quite the opposite of what? Is there a point here?
Got that? The council taught that the use of the Latin language is to be preserved in the Latin rites.
In the general sense that is true, and Latin has been preserved in Mass where the Pope celebrates it before international groups who speak all different languages. It however, does not mandate that Latin remain at all Masses throughout the Catholic world in the Latin Rite.
“Particular law remaining in force, the use of the Latin language is to be preserved in the Latin rites.” Got it yet? Re-read until you don’t feel the need to find specious ways to parse what is explicitly clear on the face of the text.
As I pointed out to you in the doctument, it allowed for experiments to be made in the adaptations to the Mass. As it turned out, the Bishops saw that the vernacular was bringing a greater participation of the people in the Mass than Latin, and so it came to be, that Latin is all but excluded in most dioceses of the USA and Canada. I’m sure it s the same in most of Europe and Asia as well.
Participation in the church has collapsed since the vernacular Mass. Now, I’m not going to say (as some do) that the correlation is causation. We can’t say that the vernacular caused the decline. But we
can say that the decline precludes your claimthat “the vernacular … [brought] a greater participation of the people in the Mass” in the same time period. In a word: Poppycock.