It seems to me that this ‘problem’ of people doubting the existence of Jesus (pbuh) is mainly prevalent in Western societies which of course are predominantly influenced by Christian teachings.
By comparison, in Muslim counties, non-Muslims are not doubting the existence of Jesus… Why is that?
Hamba2han,
There are two fallacies in your argument.
The first one is:
People don’t doubt Christianity and Jesus because of Christian teachings- the doubt of Jesus is due to a lack of religion, those people who do not believe- do not believe period. They believe all religions and faiths are false- yours and mine. So it would be hard to prove the existence of Jesus because of the Quran- they would doubt any account.
The second is:
How many people in Muslim nations consider themselves atheists or agnostics? How many are given the freedom of religion and allowed to worship no gods to many gods? Currently, (at least from this outsiders persepective) those Muslim nations do not allow such freedoms- so it is hardly proof- particularly to a Western who is used to the freedom to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness.
Like I mentioned, it really should not come as a big surprise if a younger brother ends up with similar notes as his older brothers when later on he goes to school and attends the same class and is taught by the same teacher.
This is a fairly reasonable metaphor; however it suggests the same teacher- and the same teacher made a covenant with the oldest brother which is supposed to last till the end of time, the middle brother says the teacher told him that the first covenant will last; but the teacher has fufilled and completed it for everyone, and not just one nation. Then the youngest brother comes along with similiar notes and suggests that the two older brothers who have very similiar notes and fairly good record keeping, have been incorrect for all this time and they messed up on their homework. But this stands in contrast of the first two brothers and the history laid out. It then is two against one on who has the “correct notes.”
Particularly when Islamic apologetics against Judaism and Christianity has changed drastically in one regard. In the first few centuries of Islam, the objection to Judaism/Christianity was that they misread and misinterpreted parts of the Sacred Scriptures.
Then, it changed into making the accusation that the Sacred Scriptures were altogether changed. The problem of course is that since this was a later accusation- one could look at Biblical manuscripts at the time of Muhammed to accurately judge whether between his time and ours the scriptures changed, and that they haven’t makes me curious as to why the accusation changed in the first place- other than the fact that there is a good amount of historical evidence for the practices and beliefs of both Judaism and Christianity as is throughout the centuries.
Futhermore, you undermine your own argument about the “brothers and pupil” by…
Considering all the disparaging and often downright insulting things that are written in Jewish scriptures about Ishmael (pbuh), then why are the descendants of Ishmael wholeheartedly revering a Jewess named Maryam (ra) and her son if there is even the slightest possibility that they did not exist in history?
calling into the question Judaism and its scriptures. Because if they denigrated Ishmael before the time of Muhammed- how is it even possible to trust that Ishmael existed? The only source of his existence (to any give witness to the Qu’ran) is the account found in the Old Testament.
If I may ask you a few questions,
As you speak of the descendants of Ishmael and point out the Jewish identity of Mary…how important of a role is tribe/nation in Islam?
Because from my current understanding, The Qu’ran speaks both of a nationalistic covenant (like in Judaism) and a universal one (like in Christianity.) Aspects of Islam suggest that Muhammed was for the Arabs and they are the new people of the convenant and people must convert into the national system in order to being in God’s good graces. If this is the case, why are people “of the book” allowed to continue to practice their faiths? Isn’t this a contradiction?
On the other hand, Islam also speaks of a universal system where everyone is equal and allowed to express themselves as such. Furthermore, salvation is achieved by a weighing of good deeds against bad deeds- and that one doesn’t need to really convert in order to “be saved.” Yet there are several handicaps to being a non-Muslim in Islamic society, the biggest being death for those that don’t believe or are not “of the book?” Isn’t this the same contradiction as above just turned around?
How does this all reconcile?
Sorry for the long question, I felt it needed to be properly drawn out- I thank you in advance for your answer or responses to my answers.