Yes, we loose each other at the “until”.
I interpret it differently :
“Well, you know, conception dates are hardly precise. Jesus could well have been Joseph’s son.”
“No, impossible, they didn’t have sex from the beginning to the end of her pregnancy”.
That says nothing of what happened next.
I admit I struggle to see how Mary could conceive by the Holy Spirit following her encounter with an angel, give birth to that child among more angels singing “Hosanna”, flee to Egypt to protect her baby because yet another angel warned Joseph about Herod’s murderous intents, before telling him to go live in Nazareth – and then just resume normal conjugal life as if nothing had happened. That, and at least two of Jesus’ “brothers”, James and Joseph, who are mentioned in Mt 13:55, are identified as the sons of another Mary in Mt 27:56 (that Mary who is significantly called “the other Mary” a few verses later, in 27:61), which warns about taking the word “adelphos” too literally.
The fact that early tradition, as early as the Protoevangelium of James (around 150), was unanimous in upholding Mary’s perpetual virginity, is also telling. I think it shows two things :
- that there were still earlier traditions about Mary’s perpetual virginity, which should make us ask ourselves why these traditions developed from the very beginning of Christian dogmatics
- that (and it’s part of the answer) what is at play in Incarnation is so important that it cannot originate anywhere else than in a human life totally consecrated to God in a way none was before, and none afterwards.
I used to think that while virgin birth was a crucial tenet of Christian faith, Mary’s perpetual virginity didn’t matter. I don’t think so any longer. If it wasn’t because Mary was necessary, why did the people of Israel wait so long, through such a painful history, before the birth of the Messiah ? If it wasn’t because Mary was necessary, why didn’t Christ take flesh from just any devout Israelite woman, married or not ? And if Mary and none other was necessary, it can only be for one reason : because of her unique closeness and intimacy with God. I just don’t see how her becoming the Theotokos would have made her discard that intimacy, because of which she had become Jesus’ mother in the first place, and all of a sudden live like just any married woman. The problem is not that she would have lost her virginity ; the problem is that she would have then allowed someone else to take in her life the place that had been God’s, and said goodbye to that special relationship with Him.
As for Moses and seeing God’s glory, well, of course the Incarnation made God approachable. But the feast we’re celebrating today, the Feast of the Transfiguration, is a good remainder of what was fully there under the veil.
But hey, what do I know ? After all, I’m a Mary-loving, Rosary-praying Protestant who believes in the Immaculate Conception, so you would be justified in questioning my Protestant orthodoxy