Yeah, there need not necessarily be an infinite amount of time in the past but time always existed. Time is defined as a measure of change. There can’t, by definition, be a time before time or a time when there’s no time. In a universe without time, there would be no change by definition, and hence it would be impossible for time to come into existence.
NowAg:
It appears more than likely you skipped over the post just before this one. In it I re-wrote, in part, exactly what the Catholic Church teaches with regard to time and God. I can’t imagine how you could come to the conclusion you have, had you read it. Just for edification, here it is again:
"The more complete a being is, the less it changes. A perfectly complete being would not change or need to change at all. It would possess its whole being permanently, and not in a variable series of successive stages. It would be capable of embracing its whole reality in one permanent experience. It would be always wholly itself, and forever identical with itself in every respect. It would realize all of its possibilities and meaning at once. There would be no past or present or future in our relative sense, but all would be an abiding “now,” or transcendent “present.” It would not merely (as we can partially) include the “past” by representative memory, and the “future " by anticipation based on past and present knowledge. In perfect being “past and future” would be actually present and fully possessed without differentiation of periods. Perfect duration would involve an unrestricted consciousness of the fulness of being. Time would not apply to it: it would be eternal life.” -
The Teaching of the Catholic Church, Vol I, p. 99, The Macmillan Company, 1962.
Time is not defined as simply as you state. It is defined as “the measure or rather the number of motion
according to the prior and the posterior.” The prior and the posterior are known by us first from magnitude. From magnitude we are then able to speak of the
“parts” of motion. For example, when we see a train enter a tunnel, we see the front of the train enter the tunnel
first. Then, when we see the middle of the train enter the tunnel, and we say that it entered next, or more properly,
second. And the last part of the train we say entered last, or
third. It is according to these parts that motion is measured and that time exists. Time, therefore, has its perfect existence only in the mind. Outside of the mind, time is real but imperfect and vague. So, not only is time limited to having imperfect existence in the mind, that imperfect existence is only known by the parts of an actual mobile being in motion. Potency is first and act is second.
You said, “There need not be an infinite amount of time in the past but time always existed.” How? If there was no motion in the past there would be no time. If God existed, then created the Universe (relative to time to us), there would be a period wherein no time existed. God does not undergo change or motion in the sense that we do. You stated, “In a universe without time, there would be no change by definition.” You have incorrectly characterized time and change/motion. Instead it should be, “
In a universe without motion, there would be no time by definition.” The two sentences are not the same and the subjects do not carry the same weight.
Oh, and what is the difference between “infinite” and “always?”
Motion has a touch-able, taste-able, see-able, hear-able and smell-able presence in the world of the real; time does not. Time is, in a sense, sensible, but not by the five senses as mobile being is. If we and everything else existed but were motionless, we would have no concept of time whatsoever.
Time can only be known by the mind
together with motion/change. It is not known when separated from it. Motion is, or rather the parts of motion are, the foundation for our vague grasp of time.
Thus, in theism, there was never a state of affairs in which God, and nothing else, existed.
This can only be a pretentious assertion as you cannot know with any certainty whatsoever that that is the case. Only if you skew definitions can you place time in such a premise. Your “state of affairs” is an attempt to skew out the word “time” to help your case. It does not. The sham is easily perceived and pierced.
jd