J
JM3
Guest
Jesus also said to deny yourself, or should we only listen to the parts we like.
The Church has never claimed that Peter or any Pope is infallible. Infallibility refers to only certain declarations by the Pope.In what verse did he promise Peter “certain spiritual protection and guidance of the Holy Spirit to protect the Church from falling into grave error in doctrine”?
Five verses after Jesus gives Peter all of this “infallible” authority, he says “Get behind me, Satan!” A few chapters later, Peter is denying that he knows Jesus or was with him. Man is fallible
I have addressed that:I have given evidence. I have presented arguments. Some answers have persuaded me. I’m willing to be persuaded by others. I will not “submit my intellect” to the teachings of every bishop who has ever lived in Rome for the last 2000 years because they said I should. “Because I said so!” is not a reasonable answer, and I’ve asked for evidence that there is another reason to believe that what the Pope says is true. I’m still waiting
Okay, which goes back directly to the question or truth. If truth is a reality that exists independent of the Catholic church, then 2000 years of subsequent teachings will move the church closer to Truth, or further away.I would also add that our doctrine is drawn from
- tradition (which comes at least in part from the oral tradition passed down from those who knew Jesus personally
- Scripture
- 2,000 years of great minds
- 2,000 years of great saints who spent a great deal of time on their knees, praying, fasting, etc.
The essential words (form) used in the Prayer of Absolution are “I absolve you” in the Latin Rite. However, Eastern Catholic Churches use different words and prayers but the absolution is considered perfectly valid. So the Church recognizes that there is more than one form allowed for the Sacrament of Reconciliation. See Catechism of the Catholic Church-- numbers 1449 and 1481.For ~1,000 years, a priest who was hearing confession would say “May God have mercy on you and forgive you your sins.” Around the 12th century, this was changed to “I absolve you from your sins.” Which of these is true?
‘Denying it’s Biblical’ is an interesting way of phrasing it. It is Biblical that Jesus built His Church on Peter and historical fact that Peter handed that authority, received directly from Jesus, down to the present day priests.And what could be the origin of the view that the Church never errs? You deny that it is Biblical, which means it is believed because it was said by somebody and then believed afterward, correct?