Actually PRmerger I think you misunderstand the text. It says if your spouse commits adultery then you are free to divorce.
As has already been explained, the word is not “adultery” but rather “illicit union.” The Greek word that was used is
porneia, which does NOT mean adultery.
The Greek word for adultery is
moicheia.
Matthew did not use that word.
In other words, what bound you together is undone, you are free.
What then do you say to the verse that God declares: what God has bound, no man can undo. Mark 10:9
In any case if a wife commits adultery, divorces and remarries the innocent party cannot commit adultery if they have a relationship and get married a while afterwards. Adultery can only happen against one party or the other, but not both.
Of course he can commit adultery. Because he’s still married. God said that what He joined, no one can separate.
Anyway this argument is exactly what I said in an earlier post Matthew says one thing then Mark contradicts him.
I don’t think you understand the word "contradict: For it to be a contradiction Matthew would have to say “A” and Mark would have to say “Not-A”
That is not the case here.
Matthew would have to say: Jesus said, “Divorce and re-marriage is adultery!”
Mark would have to say: Jesus said, “Divorce and re-marriage is not adultery!”
Rather, both of them say the same thing: Jesus said, “Divorce and re-marriage is adultery.”
The church then decides what fits in with its patter and indoctrination of the masses
Why in the world would the Church decide that divorce and re-marriage is adultery, if Christ hadn’t said it?
What benefit would it give her to declare something that has made her so re-viled in the world?
http://wp.patheos.com.s3.amazonaws....s/2014/05/doesnt_make_any_sense_anchorman.gif