Unique Case Contraceptive

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If you want to be ultra safe I would say 10 days.
“Ultra-safe” means no sex for anybody ever! Spontaneous abortion is a risk for anybody. There are some unwilled risks we can properly tolerate.
 
The irresponsible wording on this thread is alarming.

With NFP we should not use blanket statements like “it is not possible to conceive when…” Also we should not apply a CDF ruling to other issues to try to prove a theological point and we also should not ever advise someone that they are not culpable when blah blah blah

This is human life and souls we are talking about here.

As a former NFP instructor I’ve seen at least two charts where the person conceived a week before the period or during the period.

And while it is not easy, NFP can indeed be used on hormonal contraception.

Blanket statements are rarely helpful here and we can start a thread where we debate and debate all this without confusing the OP with our discussion.

As for mitigation we should never ever be counseling someone on the “lesser of two evils” because when you write that on the internet you are basically saying, God won’t hold you accountable and if He does, I will take your place in Judgement… Bad idea.

I’ve recently contacted the National Catholic Bioethics center and they gave me a wonderful detailed, well researched theologically grounded and medically accurate answer to a problem. It has been suggested by a priest on this thread to do that in the OP’s case. That is the best answer one can give.
 
As a former NFP instructor I’ve seen at least two charts where the person conceived a week before the period or during the period.
A week before the period is not the same as during the period.

Also, does a week before the period mean a week before the expected date for the period or a week before the period? If there is a period there is no pregnancy.

And, as has been said, not 100% impossible but very very very improbable. Once ovulation takes place the chances of getting a second ovulation before the period are so small that, as I said, any fertile woman has a higher risk of getting pregnant by rape
 
No “penance” is necessary when the contraceptive aspect of a therapeutic drug is not directly willed.
I didn’t say so. I just pointed to the flawed idea that you should be abstaining a random period of time because you are under a medical treatment that is contraceptive as a side effect
If it is a method that absolutely suppresses ovulation (anovulant), and that is the only thing that it does, this is true. However, some BCPs work differently:
If a pill is anovulant and abortifacient there is no period when the ovulation can be FORESEEN as a REASONABLE POSSIBILITY
 
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There are many applications. If a woman is on an IUD for heavy bleeding you can use NFP to avoid if a pregnancy can be life threatening. Hardly useless.

You are cutting a wide swath with your statements…
 
While on an hormonal IUD you are not practicing NFP. You are playing NFP.
Hormones in contraceptives make a mess with fertility symptoms because, you guessed right, it makes a mess with fertility
 
you are off base. The problem is that i think you and I probably agree with some very conservative principles here… Are you familiar with my postings on NFP?
 
No “penance” is necessary when the contraceptive aspect of a therapeutic drug is not directly willed.
It’s not “random”. I was referring to the time when, if ovulation is not actually suppressed, that ovulation could reasonably be foreseen to take place in a “regular” cycle. If the anovulant function for some reason doesn’t take place, then ovulation will occur. It’s not supposed to, but it can.
If it is a method that absolutely suppresses ovulation (anovulant), and that is the only thing that it does, this is true. However, some BCPs work differently:
Are you saying, then, that when an anovulant is used, and the anovulant function fails, ovulation can take place at anytime, not just the most likely time in a regular cycle? If that is true, and if the uterine lining is made too thin as a side effect of the medication (thus creating an abortifacient effect), then an unintended abortion can likewise take place at any time.

If that is the case, then that’s not the best medication to take, if an alternative exists.
 
The medication which allows her to function would also be deadly to a child in her womb.
Do you mean that if the woman were to get pregnant it would be hazardous to her health, or do you mean that her fertility would be reduced because the likelihood that an embryo could implant successfully is presumed to be nil, or what? A married woman who is at very high risk for miscarriage is not required to avoid pregnancy or practice abstinence. Sometimes, after all, women at high risk for miscarriage actually have successful pregnancies.

If a married person needs a medication that could reduce his or her fertility, he or she is not required to practice abstinence. Either there is an alternative without that unintended side effect or there isn’t and the seriousness of the condition warrants treatment in spite of the likelihood that fertility would be affected. If getting pregnant would be dangerous to the patient, however, that is a serious reason to avoid pregnancy.

If she knew she was pregnant, however, then she’d have to be ready to alter her treatment in view of the fact that she was not the only patient affected by the medication she was taking, just as anyone who found she was pregnant would stop drinking alcohol or doing anything that could harm her child.
 
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Also we should not apply a CDF ruling to other issues to try to prove a theological point and we also should not ever advise someone that they are not culpable when blah blah blah
This is the most concerning bit to me. There have been statements on this thread that takes a specific statement by the CDF and extrapolates a general case.

Essentially if A then B, so since A and E are both vowels then it follows that if E (or I, O, U) then B also applies for any vowel. That is not how it works. Similarity does not make equality.
 
True, and different people are willing to risk different things. Even if it were licit for a couple to have relations and practice NFP if the wife were taking a medication that would kill any child conceived — and I cannot accept that it is licit — I would not take that chance.

How would you tell that child, in eternity, “I wanted to have relations so badly that I allowed you to be conceived and then perish”?
The risk is so tiny, you would not be at fault. Now, if we were talking about a couple who threw out NFP and decided to have at it, then I’d side with you. The chance of pregnancy in 1 year of using no method to prevent (moral or immoral) is 86%.
A side note: if a woman has to take a potentially abortifacient contraceptive for therapeutic purposes (to regulate the cycle, to alleviate endometriosis, etc.), it seems to me that she and her husband would be bound to go through the motions of practicing, at the very least, conservative NFP.
Now you’re off topic. The hormonal contraception (unless we’re talking about the ones where they’ve added a drug that used to be used to attack cancer cells) is not a potential abortifacient. The reason the packet said MAY prevent implantation is because they meant “Maybe, but science doesn’t know enough.” More recent research is showing that it most likely doesn’t.

Moreover, in what world are you living in where NFP can even be practiced by women on the pill? You’re on drugs that suppress your menstrual cycle and give you a fake period. You don’t have a cycle to observe and chart.
The abortifacient effects of oral contraceptives in this regard were not known when Paul VI admitted their liceity for therapeutic purposes in Humanae vitae .
Yes, if we say that enough that’ll make it true. Let’s keep it up.
 
As a former NFP instructor I’ve seen at least two charts where the person conceived a week before the period or during the period.

And while it is not easy, NFP can indeed be used on hormonal contraception.
You’re telling me the couple didn’t have sex the entire month except for a week before the expected period when ovulation was clearly identified and the person was clearly in their lutael phase?

Also that is nuts to say NFP can be used while a woman is on hormonal contraception! There’s no research on any of that. I mean, sure you can make meaningless mucus observations all you want and start tea leaf reading, but there’s no research!
 
There are many applications. If a woman is on an IUD for heavy bleeding you can use NFP to avoid if a pregnancy can be life threatening. Hardly useless.
What the heck? If she’s on Minera, she’s on hormones! What sort of crazy pseudo-science are you advocating here with NFP?
 
Now you’re off topic. The hormonal contraception (unless we’re talking about the ones where they’ve added a drug that used to be used to attack cancer cells) is not a potential abortifacient. The reason the packet said MAY prevent implantation is because they meant “Maybe, but science doesn’t know enough.” More recent research is showing that it most likely doesn’t.
Sometimes these discussion just go where they go. They are related issues. If certain types of hormonal contraception are not abortifacient, that is wonderful. Good to know.
Moreover, in what world are you living in where NFP can even be practiced by women on the pill? You’re on drugs that suppress your menstrual cycle and give you a fake period. You don’t have a cycle to observe and chart.
I did not mean literally practice NFP. I can see where my words might have been imprecise. I simply meant if it can be posited that a woman could possibly ovulate in spite of the pill being an anovulant — in other words, if the anovulant function fails to work — assuming that the BCP does indeed “regulate her cycle”, potential ovulation, if it occurs, could safely be assumed to take place within several days before or after roughly day 14. Or could it?
The abortifacient effects of oral contraceptives in this regard were not known when Paul VI admitted their liceity for therapeutic purposes in Humanae vitae .
I was under the impression that the potential abortifacient function of certain pills was not known in 1968. Was it, in fact, known? Paul VI either didn’t know it, or he failed to add the qualifier “as long as the contraceptive is not abortifacient”.

I will defer to the experts as to whether failure of the anovulant function of BCPs means that ovulation could occur at the “normal” time or anytime during the cycle. That is not my area of expertise — using NFP for 12 years is.
 
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This is the most concerning bit to me. There have been statements on this thread that takes a specific statement by the CDF and extrapolates a general case.

Essentially if A then B, so since A and E are both vowels then it follows that if E (or I, O, U) then B also applies for any vowel. That is not how it works. Similarity does not make equality.
Catholics are not supposed to act like robots. You don’t have to expect a precise rule or instruction for every possible moral case from church’s hierarchy. There is something called reason and something called conscience.

The conclusion I reach sounds weird, yes. Because the CDF ruling is based on weird principles that are totally alien to anyone with a prior understanding of anything related to sterilization and contraception in catholic morals.
No catholic moralist would say that the malice of sterilization “consists in the refusal of children” but the frustration of a bodily function by means of a surgical intervention on an organ that poses no risk to the body health.
No catholic moralist, in good standing at least, would say that viability is the point where procreation occurs. No catholic moralist would say that a human life that will not reach birth is of less value.
Saying that the malice of sterilization consists in the “refusal of children” makes NFP equally bad as it is putting the moral value in the will to not have children.
But all this things are in the CDF responsum. The golden rule of “if it can be achieved using NFP then it is not a medical treatment where contraception/sterilization is a side undesired effect” is no longer valid.
 
In this case she is taking the medication for a neurological disorder and not for purposes of contraception. In this case she should be able to have normal relations with her husband.
 
Boy you really like to come in guns-a-blazing huh?
  1. Sure
  2. Nuts? what is nuts is the absolute statements of this thread. things like “not possible” and “cant use”
    NFP is different for each woman because her cycle is different and her body is different. In some cases it can be used and in some cases it cannot.
People here are’t really defining terms anyway. NFP can be one of three main methods… or it can be an app… or a paper calandar…
What is nuts is the blatant statements made to try to make points where souls and lives are in the balance.
 
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