R
Rau
Guest
“Ultra-safe” means no sex for anybody ever! Spontaneous abortion is a risk for anybody. There are some unwilled risks we can properly tolerate.If you want to be ultra safe I would say 10 days.
“Ultra-safe” means no sex for anybody ever! Spontaneous abortion is a risk for anybody. There are some unwilled risks we can properly tolerate.If you want to be ultra safe I would say 10 days.
A week before the period is not the same as during the period.As a former NFP instructor I’ve seen at least two charts where the person conceived a week before the period or during the period.
It’s a useless exerciseAnd while it is not easy, NFP can indeed be used on hormonal contraception.
I didn’t say so. I just pointed to the flawed idea that you should be abstaining a random period of time because you are under a medical treatment that is contraceptive as a side effectNo “penance” is necessary when the contraceptive aspect of a therapeutic drug is not directly willed.
If a pill is anovulant and abortifacient there is no period when the ovulation can be FORESEEN as a REASONABLE POSSIBILITYIf it is a method that absolutely suppresses ovulation (anovulant), and that is the only thing that it does, this is true. However, some BCPs work differently:
It’s not “random”. I was referring to the time when, if ovulation is not actually suppressed, that ovulation could reasonably be foreseen to take place in a “regular” cycle. If the anovulant function for some reason doesn’t take place, then ovulation will occur. It’s not supposed to, but it can.No “penance” is necessary when the contraceptive aspect of a therapeutic drug is not directly willed.
Are you saying, then, that when an anovulant is used, and the anovulant function fails, ovulation can take place at anytime, not just the most likely time in a regular cycle? If that is true, and if the uterine lining is made too thin as a side effect of the medication (thus creating an abortifacient effect), then an unintended abortion can likewise take place at any time.If it is a method that absolutely suppresses ovulation (anovulant), and that is the only thing that it does, this is true. However, some BCPs work differently:
If that is the case, then that’s not the best medication to take, if an alternative exists.
Do you mean that if the woman were to get pregnant it would be hazardous to her health, or do you mean that her fertility would be reduced because the likelihood that an embryo could implant successfully is presumed to be nil, or what? A married woman who is at very high risk for miscarriage is not required to avoid pregnancy or practice abstinence. Sometimes, after all, women at high risk for miscarriage actually have successful pregnancies.The medication which allows her to function would also be deadly to a child in her womb.
This is the most concerning bit to me. There have been statements on this thread that takes a specific statement by the CDF and extrapolates a general case.Also we should not apply a CDF ruling to other issues to try to prove a theological point and we also should not ever advise someone that they are not culpable when blah blah blah
The risk is so tiny, you would not be at fault. Now, if we were talking about a couple who threw out NFP and decided to have at it, then I’d side with you. The chance of pregnancy in 1 year of using no method to prevent (moral or immoral) is 86%.True, and different people are willing to risk different things. Even if it were licit for a couple to have relations and practice NFP if the wife were taking a medication that would kill any child conceived — and I cannot accept that it is licit — I would not take that chance.
How would you tell that child, in eternity, “I wanted to have relations so badly that I allowed you to be conceived and then perish”?
Now you’re off topic. The hormonal contraception (unless we’re talking about the ones where they’ve added a drug that used to be used to attack cancer cells) is not a potential abortifacient. The reason the packet said MAY prevent implantation is because they meant “Maybe, but science doesn’t know enough.” More recent research is showing that it most likely doesn’t.A side note: if a woman has to take a potentially abortifacient contraceptive for therapeutic purposes (to regulate the cycle, to alleviate endometriosis, etc.), it seems to me that she and her husband would be bound to go through the motions of practicing, at the very least, conservative NFP.
Yes, if we say that enough that’ll make it true. Let’s keep it up.The abortifacient effects of oral contraceptives in this regard were not known when Paul VI admitted their liceity for therapeutic purposes in Humanae vitae .
You’re telling me the couple didn’t have sex the entire month except for a week before the expected period when ovulation was clearly identified and the person was clearly in their lutael phase?As a former NFP instructor I’ve seen at least two charts where the person conceived a week before the period or during the period.
And while it is not easy, NFP can indeed be used on hormonal contraception.
What the heck? If she’s on Minera, she’s on hormones! What sort of crazy pseudo-science are you advocating here with NFP?There are many applications. If a woman is on an IUD for heavy bleeding you can use NFP to avoid if a pregnancy can be life threatening. Hardly useless.
Sometimes these discussion just go where they go. They are related issues. If certain types of hormonal contraception are not abortifacient, that is wonderful. Good to know.Now you’re off topic. The hormonal contraception (unless we’re talking about the ones where they’ve added a drug that used to be used to attack cancer cells) is not a potential abortifacient. The reason the packet said MAY prevent implantation is because they meant “Maybe, but science doesn’t know enough.” More recent research is showing that it most likely doesn’t.
I did not mean literally practice NFP. I can see where my words might have been imprecise. I simply meant if it can be posited that a woman could possibly ovulate in spite of the pill being an anovulant — in other words, if the anovulant function fails to work — assuming that the BCP does indeed “regulate her cycle”, potential ovulation, if it occurs, could safely be assumed to take place within several days before or after roughly day 14. Or could it?Moreover, in what world are you living in where NFP can even be practiced by women on the pill? You’re on drugs that suppress your menstrual cycle and give you a fake period. You don’t have a cycle to observe and chart.
I was under the impression that the potential abortifacient function of certain pills was not known in 1968. Was it, in fact, known? Paul VI either didn’t know it, or he failed to add the qualifier “as long as the contraceptive is not abortifacient”.The abortifacient effects of oral contraceptives in this regard were not known when Paul VI admitted their liceity for therapeutic purposes in Humanae vitae .
I will defer to the experts as to whether failure of the anovulant function of BCPs means that ovulation could occur at the “normal” time or anytime during the cycle. That is not my area of expertise — using NFP for 12 years is.
No, no, no.could safely be assumed
Catholics are not supposed to act like robots. You don’t have to expect a precise rule or instruction for every possible moral case from church’s hierarchy. There is something called reason and something called conscience.This is the most concerning bit to me. There have been statements on this thread that takes a specific statement by the CDF and extrapolates a general case.
Essentially if A then B, so since A and E are both vowels then it follows that if E (or I, O, U) then B also applies for any vowel. That is not how it works. Similarity does not make equality.
So are you saying that ovulation, if it occurs in spite of taking an anovulant BCP, can occur at any time during the artificial “cycle”?could safely be assumed
If so, then the therapeutic user needs to find a BCP that does not have an abortifacient side effect.