N
Nicea325
Guest
**You haven’t answered my question. Why doesn’t the author use petros-petros but petros-petra? **
First of all,Jesus spoke Aramaic,not Greek. It was translated into Greek and why would the NT author assign a male a feminine name? Greek as many languages are gender based,unlike English.
Jesus changed Peter’s name to Cephas(Kephas) and that in itself bears a huge significance that the majority of non-Catholics blow off. Time to learn the OT lot better in its entirety.
First of all,Jesus spoke Aramaic,not Greek. It was translated into Greek and why would the NT author assign a male a feminine name? Greek as many languages are gender based,unlike English.
Jesus changed Peter’s name to Cephas(Kephas) and that in itself bears a huge significance that the majority of non-Catholics blow off. Time to learn the OT lot better in its entirety.