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TMC
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I will try to be more clear. My understanding that SSPX does not accept that non-Catholics (or at least non-Christians) who die without an explicit desire to be baptized can be saved. I can’t point to their official documents as they appear to have none. If I have stated their position correctly, it conflicts with the Church’s teaching as set forth in the Dogmatic Constitution and the Catechism.I must again emphasize that it appears you are making more of what the Holy Father is saying that what is actually there. The popes do not generally beat around the bush, and if there were errors to be condemned, the current Holy Father especially would be the first to specify them. The fact that he does not seems to indicate that the matters of doctrinal disagreement are still be flesched out, and that is the nature both of the SSPX situation and of the foreward going dialogue. I cannot see how you can read so much into such a brief statement (two errors, no less!).
Your statements on Church teaching regarding salvation appear to be very much in error, and hold no correlation to the traditional teaching.
First, the statements about the SSPX view about EENS are vague, so I cannot tell what point you are trying to make about them. Nevertheless, the Church teaching is clear, and the interpretation you seem to present here is not it. How can Vatican II “clarify” a view that is set in stone dogmatically? The “narrow” view of formal membership is the orthodox view. While it is true some rare exceptions apply, they do not apply to most situations, including rejection of Catholicism and regular membership in a non-Catholic sect.
How else does one reinterprit this:
“The Catholic Church firmly believes, professes, and proclaims that those not living within the Catholic Church, not only pagans, but also Jews and heretics and schismatics cannot become participants in eternal life, but will depart “into everlasting fire which was prepared for the devil and his angels” [Matt. 25:41], unless before the end of life the same have been added to the flock; and that the unity of the ecclesiastical body is so strong that only to those remaining in it are the sacraments of the Church of benefit for salvation, and do fastings, almsgiving, and other functions of piety and exercises of Christian service produce eternal reward, and that no one, whatever almsgiving he has practiced, even if he has shed blood for the name of Christ, can be saved, unless he has remained in the bosom and unity of the Catholic Church.” (Cantate Domino, Pope Eugene IV, Council of Florence)
This was infallibly defined by the Church. How does one clarify this to have another meaning? It seems the example you gave of calling grass orange etc. applies here in triplicate. Numerous pontiffs have expounded on this theme over and over again, so there is no room left to “clarify” the doctrine of the Church into another meaning. What exactly do you perceive Vatican II clarified, may I ask? What was unclear before? What deposit of Faith did Eugene IV, Boniface VIII, Pius IX, Pius X, Pius XII, et al. miss out on that they defined doctrine contrary to it. and which Vatican II suddenly rediscovered?
I yet again fail to see where you are bringing your point from. The SSPX is not attempting to defend it’s “personal opinion” against Church teaching. They are attempting to defend previous Church teaching against perceived novelties. Again, they never said an ecumenical council did not have authority over doctrine. They are saying a council cannot redefine an already defined dogma. It simply is not in its power. How can you keep saying they are acting in a manner which they are clearly not? A rejected teaching? Can an ecumenical council reject infallible dogmas? I strongly urge you to give us real examples of SSPX errors, from their own words, and what exactly they contradict in Church teaching. Making undocumented assertions about their presumed errors does not give us evidence to deal with. Your gracious sharing of this information would greatly help us to understand exactly where these “errors” arise from. I truly appreciate your sharing this with us.
As for whether an Ecumenical Council can “redefine an already defined dogma,” virtually every Council has provided further explanation or clarification of existing dogma. If you refer to that as redefining, then that it what Councils do. Vatican I certainly did so with Papal infallibility. You may say that Vatican I did not change the teaching on infallibilty, it simply restated it more clearly. I say the same for Vatican II’s teaching on salvation for non-Catholics.
Vatican II did not reject any infallible dogma. The infallible dogma is that there is no salvation outside the Church. That dogma has not changed. But at some points the Church has taught that this dogma means that one must be a formal member of the Catholic Church to be saved, except for martyrs and those who explicitly desired Baptism but died before they could be baptized. Vatican II explains the existing dogma slightly differently, in a way that is more consistent with the Deposit of Faith.
Those that argue that the Council is wrong, that Vatican II’s explanation is less consistent with the Deposit of Faith are arguing that their interpretation of the Faith is better than the Council’s. That is clearly a dissenting opinion, but an opinion they have a right to hold. They are free to discuss and advocate for that position. But some go so far as to suggest that their interpretation is more authoritative, or at least equally authoritative, as the Council’s. They do this by arguing that this particular Council lacked the authority to clarify Church teaching in this way. That is not a position they have a right to hold if they are Catholic. It is no different than the way other groups have rejected the teachings of other Councils.