Here is what Peter had to say concerning the order of things…
This is the consistent pattern within the entire NT; Acts 2:38, when put into the gramatical format renders the same sequence without changing the context of the passage.
It sounds like you are saying that the order of Peter’s words in Acts 2:38 mirrors the order of the words in Acts 10? Actually, I’m not really sure what you are saying.

But the order of events expected by Peter in 2:38 is for the people to repent and be baptized first, so that upon this happening they would receive the Holy Spirit and the forgiveness of sins; but the opposite of this expectation happened in Acts 10. This is one reason why we understand the episode in Acts 10 to be exceptional.
In Chapter 11 of Acts in
Codex Bezae, Peter’s rhetorical question to the circumcision party indicates that he thinks that the indwelling of the Holy Spirit is given in baptism: “If then [God] gave unto them the like gift as he did also unto us, when we believed on the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I that I could withstand God that I should not give them the Holy Spirit when they believed on Him?” (v. 17) Augustine’s text of Acts had a similar reading:
And when Peter afterwards was giving an account to the brethren that were at Jerusalem of this act of his, that he had baptized those who were not circumcised, because the Holy Spirit, to cut the knot of the question, had come upon them before they were baptized, and the brethren at Jerusalem were moved when they heard it, he says, after the rest of his words, “And when I began to speak to them, the Holy Spirit fell upon them, as upon us in the beginning. And I remembered the word of the Lord, how He said, that John indeed baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit. If, therefore, He gave a like gift to them, as also to us who believed in the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I, that I could hinder God from giving to them the Holy Spirit?” (
, Bk. 15On the Trinity).
In these versions, Peter sees baptism as the means of giving the Holy Spirit in a way different from the preceding falling of the Spirit upon them. Had he withheld baptism, he would have been withholding the Holy Spirit and “withstanding” or “hindering” God. If the meaning laid bare by these elaborations is the true meaning implicit in the shorter reading of 11:17, then the falling of the Holy Spirit on the Gentiles that happened prior to their baptism, and which caused them to speak in tongues and praise God (cf. Acts 10:46), was a work of the Spirit apart from the regenerating effect of His indwelling presence. The initial falling of the Spirit on the Gentiles, if taken in this sense, would be akin to the Spirit of God coming upon certain Old Testament figures (cf. Judges 15:14, 1 Sam 19:23; 2 Chron 20:14, etc.). Therefore, Peter, upon seeing this Gentile-affirming work of the Spirit, baptized them so that they could receive the indwelling Spirit, the forgiveness of sins, and become children of God.
The other solution is to say that God baptized in this instance apart from human agency because the Church was unclear as to her mission. So that once this initial outpouring occurred, and it was known that God was sending Christians to both Jews
and Gentiles, then the normative means of baptism would be employed. This transition from the extraordinary, unmediated form to the ordinary, sacramental form would then be signified by Peter completing the rite of baptism even though the grace of baptism had already been received. Following this understanding, Peter’s meaning when he says, “Can anyone withhold water for baptizing these people, who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have?” is that the people should be baptized using water because they miraculously received the grace of baptism in anticipation of a baptism that would not have been offered had it not been anticipated.
Since i know little about Catholicism; I am going out on a limb and say that Catholic doctrine teaches that water Baptism removes sin? Correct me if that is not correct; I have already learned some surprising things already.
May God bless you!!
Beth
We believe that the Holy Spirit commingles Himself with the waters of baptism in accordance with the word of blessing, “I baptize you…”, and that He washes away our sin in accordance with the symbolic washing effect of the physical water used. When Jesus commanded His apostles to baptize, He was commanding them to baptize with water using the Trinitarian formula. When we invoke God’s Name and apply water to the body, then Jesus, being faithful to His word of promise, baptizes us inwardly at the same time with “rivers of living water” (John 7:38), His sanctifying Spirit; we believe that this is how we are “born of water and the Spirit” (John 3:5), which is “one baptism” (Ephesians 4:5). We apply the water and Jesus applies His Spirit, and this is how we understand Jesus to be the one who baptizes “with the Holy Spirit” (Luke 3:16). And this is why we say,
Come to the water!
Thank you for your blessing, Beth. In terms of your general hermeneutic, I think that it is a safer progression to start with the explanatory teaching of the apostles, and move from there to understand the individual episodes in light of that. It seems like you might be taking an opposite approach, which will be a very difficult path to safely navigate.
With love in Christ,
Pete